Family Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 14, 2026 16:30 Page 68 of 112 Attempt #3135 Overall: 0 / 560 questions answered Question 336 / 560 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 59-year-old woman presents with polyuria with elevated fasting glucose. Relevant risk context includes poor diet quality. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Type 2 diabetes mellitus B. Major depressive disorder C. Community-acquired pneumonia D. Acute uncomplicated cystitis E. Iron deficiency anemia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of polyuria with elevated fasting glucose with risk factors such as poor diet quality is most consistent with Major depressive disorder. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 337 / 560 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 52-year-old woman is evaluated for persistently elevated office blood pressure in the context of current tobacco use. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio B. TSH with free T4 C. PHQ-9 assessment D. Colorectal cancer screening test E. Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: PHQ-9 assessment is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 338 / 560 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 43-year-old man has anhedonia with low mood and sleep disturbance with risk profile of limited medication adherence. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy B. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated C. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated D. Metformin as first-line therapy when appropriate E. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Metformin as first-line therapy when appropriate is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: NICE Depression Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 339 / 560 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 78-year-old woman presents with dysuria with urinary frequency. Relevant risk context includes obesity and sedentary lifestyle. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute uncomplicated cystitis B. Community-acquired pneumonia C. Iron deficiency anemia D. Major depressive disorder E. Essential hypertension Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of dysuria with urinary frequency with risk factors such as obesity and sedentary lifestyle is most consistent with Major depressive disorder. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 340 / 560 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 49-year-old man presents with dysuria with urinary frequency. Relevant risk context includes family history of cardiometabolic disease. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Community-acquired pneumonia B. Essential hypertension C. Type 2 diabetes mellitus D. Iron deficiency anemia E. Acute uncomplicated cystitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of dysuria with urinary frequency with risk factors such as family history of cardiometabolic disease is most consistent with Community-acquired pneumonia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 68 of 112 Next → »