Family Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 14, 2026 15:32 Page 69 of 112 Attempt #3133 Overall: 0 / 560 questions answered Question 341 / 560 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 82-year-old man presents with fatigue with microcytosis. Relevant risk context includes recent psychosocial stressors. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Iron deficiency anemia B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus C. Essential hypertension D. Community-acquired pneumonia E. Acute uncomplicated cystitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of fatigue with microcytosis with risk factors such as recent psychosocial stressors is most consistent with Essential hypertension. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 342 / 560 Not answered During ward handover: a 68-year-old woman is evaluated for productive cough with focal crackles in the context of family history of cardiometabolic disease. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Colorectal cancer screening test B. Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation C. Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio D. HbA1c with fasting glucose E. PHQ-9 assessment Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Colorectal cancer screening test is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 343 / 560 Not answered During ward handover: a 64-year-old woman has anhedonia with low mood and sleep disturbance with risk profile of current tobacco use. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy B. Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up C. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan D. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated E. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 344 / 560 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 43-year-old woman is evaluated for polyuria with elevated fasting glucose in the context of current tobacco use. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio B. Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation C. HbA1c with fasting glucose D. PHQ-9 assessment E. TSH with free T4 Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: HbA1c with fasting glucose is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 345 / 560 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 38-year-old woman is evaluated for productive cough with focal crackles in the context of limited medication adherence. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. TSH with free T4 B. HbA1c with fasting glucose C. Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation D. Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio E. PHQ-9 assessment Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Lipid panel with ASCVD risk estimation is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Family Medicine. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 69 of 112 Next → »