Family Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 14, 2026 14:01 Page 71 of 112 Attempt #3129 Overall: 0 / 560 questions answered Question 351 / 560 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 50-year-old man presents with productive cough with focal crackles. Relevant risk context includes obesity and sedentary lifestyle. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Type 2 diabetes mellitus B. Essential hypertension C. Major depressive disorder D. Community-acquired pneumonia E. Iron deficiency anemia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of productive cough with focal crackles with risk factors such as obesity and sedentary lifestyle is most consistent with Iron deficiency anemia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: NICE Depression Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 352 / 560 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 73-year-old man has persistently elevated office blood pressure with risk profile of current tobacco use. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan B. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy C. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated D. Metformin as first-line therapy when appropriate E. Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 353 / 560 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 40-year-old man presents with anhedonia with low mood and sleep disturbance. Relevant risk context includes obesity and sedentary lifestyle. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Community-acquired pneumonia B. Acute uncomplicated cystitis C. Type 2 diabetes mellitus D. Major depressive disorder E. Iron deficiency anemia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of anhedonia with low mood and sleep disturbance with risk factors such as obesity and sedentary lifestyle is most consistent with Iron deficiency anemia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 354 / 560 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 59-year-old man has anhedonia with low mood and sleep disturbance with risk profile of recent psychosocial stressors. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Metformin as first-line therapy when appropriate B. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated C. Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up D. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated E. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 355 / 560 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 73-year-old man presents with dysuria with urinary frequency. Relevant risk context includes recent psychosocial stressors. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Iron deficiency anemia B. Major depressive disorder C. Community-acquired pneumonia D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus E. Essential hypertension Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of dysuria with urinary frequency with risk factors such as recent psychosocial stressors is most consistent with Essential hypertension. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 71 of 112 Next → »