Family Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 14, 2026 13:10 Page 72 of 112 Attempt #3126 Overall: 0 / 560 questions answered Question 356 / 560 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 49-year-old man has persistently elevated office blood pressure with risk profile of family history of cardiometabolic disease. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy B. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan C. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated D. ACE inhibitor or ARB when indicated E. Metformin as first-line therapy when appropriate Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: NICE Depression Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 357 / 560 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 79-year-old man has dysuria with urinary frequency with risk profile of current tobacco use. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Lifestyle intervention with structured follow-up B. Metformin as first-line therapy when appropriate C. Guideline-concordant outpatient antibiotic therapy when indicated D. Evidence-based antidepressant with safety plan E. Brief counseling plus smoking cessation pharmacotherapy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Metformin as first-line therapy when appropriate is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Family Medicine. Reference: NICE Depression Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 358 / 560 Not answered During ward handover: a 26-year-old woman presents with productive cough with focal crackles. Relevant risk context includes obesity and sedentary lifestyle. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Major depressive disorder B. Essential hypertension C. Type 2 diabetes mellitus D. Iron deficiency anemia E. Acute uncomplicated cystitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of productive cough with focal crackles with risk factors such as obesity and sedentary lifestyle is most consistent with Essential hypertension. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 359 / 560 Not answered During ward handover: a 43-year-old man presents with productive cough with focal crackles. Relevant risk context includes limited medication adherence. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Major depressive disorder B. Community-acquired pneumonia C. Type 2 diabetes mellitus D. Essential hypertension E. Iron deficiency anemia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of productive cough with focal crackles with risk factors such as limited medication adherence is most consistent with Community-acquired pneumonia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: ACC/AHA Primary Prevention and Hypertension Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 360 / 560 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 63-year-old man presents with fatigue with microcytosis. Relevant risk context includes current tobacco use. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Iron deficiency anemia B. Essential hypertension C. Acute uncomplicated cystitis D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus E. Community-acquired pneumonia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of fatigue with microcytosis with risk factors such as current tobacco use is most consistent with Essential hypertension. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Family Medicine. Reference: USPSTF Preventive Services Recommendations (current) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 72 of 112 Next → »