Family Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 14, 2026 10:00 Page 76 of 112 Attempt #3113 Overall: 0 / 560 questions answered Question 376 / 560 Not answered During an annual wellness examination: a 44-year-old woman is being assessed for test-and-treat strategy; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Avoid eradication therapy after positive stool antigen B. Use serology only to confirm eradication C. Reserve H. pylori treatment for GI bleeding only D. Use noninvasive H. pylori testing and treat when positive in appropriate dyspepsia E. Use empiric long-term PPI without any testing in all patients Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Use noninvasive H. pylori testing and treat when positive in appropriate dyspepsia. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: ACG Clinical Guideline: Treatment of Helicobacter pylori Infection Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 377 / 560 Not answered At a preventive-care visit: a 52-year-old man is being assessed for acute uncomplicated cystitis; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Use prolonged steroids as primary treatment B. Use IV carbapenem as first-line outpatient therapy C. Use guideline-concordant short-course oral therapy such as nitrofurantoin when appropriate D. Treat asymptomatic bacteriuria in healthy nonpregnant women E. Avoid all antibiotics in symptomatic cystitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Use guideline-concordant short-course oral therapy such as nitrofurantoin when appropriate. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: IDSA Guideline for Acute Uncomplicated Cystitis and Pyelonephritis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 378 / 560 Not answered During primary-care follow-up: a 39-year-old woman is being assessed for pyelonephritis recognition; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Suspect pyelonephritis with systemic features and initiate prompt systemic therapy B. Use topical antifungal cream as first-line C. Avoid urine culture in suspected upper UTI D. Treat flank pain and fever as simple cystitis only E. Delay treatment pending repeat symptoms for 72 hours Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Suspect pyelonephritis with systemic features and initiate prompt systemic therapy. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: IDSA Guideline for Acute Pyelonephritis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 379 / 560 Not answered In a routine family medicine clinic encounter: a 57-year-old man is being assessed for stroke prevention in af; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Base anticoagulation on heart rate alone B. Avoid rhythm/rate evaluation when asymptomatic C. Anticoagulate only after first stroke D. Use aspirin alone for all AF patients E. Assess CHA2DS2-VASc risk and anticoagulate eligible patients Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Assess CHA2DS2-VASc risk and anticoagulate eligible patients. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: ESC Atrial Fibrillation Guideline (2020 update) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 380 / 560 Not answered At a chronic disease review appointment: a 47-year-old woman is being assessed for possible acs triage; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Urgently refer for emergency evaluation when ACS is suspected B. Treat all exertional chest pain as reflux first C. Prescribe anxiolytic only without cardiac assessment D. Use outpatient treadmill test in unstable symptoms E. Schedule routine follow-up in 3 months Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Urgently refer for emergency evaluation when ACS is suspected. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: AHA/ACC Chest Pain Guideline (2021) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 76 of 112 Next → »