Family Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 14, 2026 08:26 Page 78 of 112 Attempt #3107 Overall: 0 / 560 questions answered Question 386 / 560 Not answered During primary-care follow-up: a 39-year-old woman is being assessed for average-risk colorectal cancer screening; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Start colorectal cancer screening at age 45 with an approved strategy B. Screen only if iron-deficiency anemia develops C. Use CEA blood testing as the primary screening method D. Perform annual CT abdomen as first-line screening E. Delay screening until age 60 if asymptomatic Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Start colorectal cancer screening at age 45 with an approved strategy. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: USPSTF Colorectal Cancer Screening Recommendation (2021); ACS Colorectal Cancer Screening Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 387 / 560 Not answered In a routine family medicine clinic encounter: a 39-year-old woman is being assessed for breast cancer screening interval; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Offer biennial mammography for women aged 40-74 at average risk B. Start annual mammography at age 25 for all women C. Screen only after a breast lump appears D. Replace mammography with annual breast MRI in average risk E. Stop screening at age 50 regardless of risk Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Offer biennial mammography for women aged 40-74 at average risk. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: USPSTF Breast Cancer Screening Recommendation (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 388 / 560 Not answered At a chronic disease review appointment: a 52-year-old woman is being assessed for cervical cancer screening; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Start cervical screening only after age 50 B. Annual pelvic ultrasound replaces cervical screening C. For ages 30-65, perform primary HPV testing every 5 years (or approved alternatives) D. Pap smear every 6 months indefinitely E. No screening needed after sexual debut Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: For ages 30-65, perform primary HPV testing every 5 years (or approved alternatives). This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: USPSTF Cervical Cancer Screening Recommendation (2018, reaffirmed) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 389 / 560 Not answered During a same-day outpatient consultation: a 68-year-old man is being assessed for primary prevention statin indication; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Prescribe high-intensity statin to all adults over 30 B. Use triglycerides alone to decide statin therapy C. Avoid statins if LDL is above 190 mg/dL D. Delay lipid treatment until symptomatic cardiovascular disease appears E. Estimate 10-year ASCVD risk and consider moderate-intensity statin when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Estimate 10-year ASCVD risk and consider moderate-intensity statin when indicated. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: ACC/AHA Cholesterol Guideline (2018 with updates) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 390 / 560 Not answered In a community health center follow-up: a 35-year-old woman is being assessed for initial drug therapy in hypertension with diabetes; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Prefer chronic clonidine monotherapy as first-line approach B. Start antihypertensive therapy and include ACE inhibitor or ARB when albuminuria is present C. Avoid blood pressure medication until BP exceeds 180/110 D. Treat only with lifestyle changes despite persistent stage 2 hypertension E. Use loop diuretic as first-line monotherapy in all patients Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Start antihypertensive therapy and include ACE inhibitor or ARB when albuminuria is present. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: ACC/AHA Hypertension Guideline (2017); ADA Standards of Care Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 78 of 112 Next → »