Family Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 14, 2026 07:48 Page 79 of 112 Attempt #3103 Overall: 0 / 560 questions answered Question 391 / 560 Not answered At a continuity-of-care review: a 61-year-old man is being assessed for initial therapy in type 2 diabetes; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Use metformin as first-line therapy unless contraindicated B. Start insulin in every newly diagnosed patient C. Use sulfonylurea first in all overweight patients D. Treat only after A1c exceeds 12% E. Avoid lifestyle intervention at diagnosis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Use metformin as first-line therapy unless contraindicated. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 392 / 560 Not answered During an annual wellness examination: a 44-year-old woman is being assessed for glycemic target; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Target A1c <5% for all patients B. For many nonpregnant adults, target A1c around <7% with individualized goals C. Use one fixed A1c target regardless of frailty or comorbidity D. Ignore A1c and rely only on fasting glucose E. Stop A1c monitoring after diagnosis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: For many nonpregnant adults, target A1c around <7% with individualized goals. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 393 / 560 Not answered At a preventive-care visit: a 52-year-old man is being assessed for diabetic kidney protection; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Delay kidney-protective therapy until dialysis is required B. Avoid RAAS blockade when albuminuria is present C. Replace BP control with high-protein diet D. Use NSAIDs long-term to protect renal function E. Use ACE inhibitor or ARB in diabetes with hypertension and albuminuria Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Use ACE inhibitor or ARB in diabetes with hypertension and albuminuria. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: KDIGO CKD Guideline; ADA Standards of Care Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 394 / 560 Not answered During primary-care follow-up: a 39-year-old woman is being assessed for persistent asthma controller; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Avoid spirometry in asthma follow-up B. Use antibiotics as maintenance therapy C. Use short-acting beta agonist alone as long-term controller D. Start chronic oral steroid in all mild cases E. Initiate inhaled corticosteroid-containing therapy for persistent asthma Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Initiate inhaled corticosteroid-containing therapy for persistent asthma. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: GINA Global Strategy for Asthma Management (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 395 / 560 Not answered In a routine family medicine clinic encounter: a 57-year-old man is being assessed for copd exacerbation outpatient treatment; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Delay treatment until sputum culture is finalized in all cases B. Use long-term antibiotics for every COPD visit C. Stop all inhalers during exacerbation D. Treat moderate exacerbation with bronchodilators, short steroid course, and antibiotics when indicated E. Use diuretics as primary exacerbation treatment Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Treat moderate exacerbation with bronchodilators, short steroid course, and antibiotics when indicated. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: GOLD COPD Report (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 79 of 112 Next → »