Family Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 22:57 Page 87 of 112 Attempt #2979 Overall: 0 / 560 questions answered Question 431 / 560 Not answered At a continuity-of-care review: a 61-year-old man is being assessed for depression primary care workflow; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Delay treatment until psychosis develops B. Treat with sedatives as first-line monotherapy C. Confirm diagnosis, assess suicide risk, and initiate evidence-based treatment/follow-up D. Avoid asking about self-harm to reduce distress E. Use PHQ-9 once and discharge without plan Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Confirm diagnosis, assess suicide risk, and initiate evidence-based treatment/follow-up. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: NICE Depression Guideline; APA Depression Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 432 / 560 Not answered During an annual wellness examination: a 44-year-old woman is being assessed for self-harm immediate assessment; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Promise absolute confidentiality without risk assessment B. Discharge immediately if vitals are stable C. Focus only on school/work stress without safety screen D. Perform immediate safety assessment including intent, plan, means, and supports E. Use antibiotics as first-line intervention Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Perform immediate safety assessment including intent, plan, means, and supports. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: NICE Self-harm Guideline (2022) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 433 / 560 Not answered At a preventive-care visit: a 52-year-old man is being assessed for low back pain red flags; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Use opioids indefinitely as first-line treatment B. Urgently investigate when red flags suggest serious pathology C. Order MRI for all acute low back pain at first visit D. Use strict bed rest for two weeks in uncomplicated pain E. Ignore bladder dysfunction when back pain is present Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Urgently investigate when red flags suggest serious pathology. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: NICE Low Back Pain and Sciatica Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 434 / 560 Not answered During primary-care follow-up: a 39-year-old woman is being assessed for ckd monitoring in diabetes; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Monitor eGFR and urine albumin at least annually in diabetes B. Monitor only if random glucose exceeds 300 mg/dL C. Avoid albumin testing because it does not change management D. Use serum creatinine once every 5 years E. Screen only after edema develops Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Monitor eGFR and urine albumin at least annually in diabetes. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: ADA Standards of Care; KDIGO CKD Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 435 / 560 Not answered In a routine family medicine clinic encounter: a 57-year-old man is being assessed for adult vaccination in primary care; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Apply age- and risk-based vaccination schedule including annual influenza vaccination B. Give live vaccines during severe immunosuppression routinely C. Vaccinate only after laboratory confirmation of infection D. Use tetanus booster monthly E. Avoid influenza vaccination in all adults with chronic disease Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Apply age- and risk-based vaccination schedule including annual influenza vaccination. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: CDC Adult Immunization Schedule (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 87 of 112 Next → »