Family Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 12:42 Page 93 of 112 Attempt #2719 Overall: 0 / 560 questions answered Question 461 / 560 Not answered During a same-day outpatient consultation: a 68-year-old man is being assessed for average-risk colorectal cancer screening; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Screen only if iron-deficiency anemia develops B. Use CEA blood testing as the primary screening method C. Start colorectal cancer screening at age 45 with an approved strategy D. Perform annual CT abdomen as first-line screening E. Delay screening until age 60 if asymptomatic Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Start colorectal cancer screening at age 45 with an approved strategy. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: USPSTF Colorectal Cancer Screening Recommendation (2021); ACS Colorectal Cancer Screening Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 462 / 560 Not answered In a community health center follow-up: a 61-year-old woman is being assessed for breast cancer screening interval; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Stop screening at age 50 regardless of risk B. Offer biennial mammography for women aged 40-74 at average risk C. Start annual mammography at age 25 for all women D. Screen only after a breast lump appears E. Replace mammography with annual breast MRI in average risk Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Offer biennial mammography for women aged 40-74 at average risk. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: USPSTF Breast Cancer Screening Recommendation (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 463 / 560 Not answered At a continuity-of-care review: a 39-year-old woman is being assessed for cervical cancer screening; What is the most appropriate next step? A. For ages 30-65, perform primary HPV testing every 5 years (or approved alternatives) B. Pap smear every 6 months indefinitely C. Annual pelvic ultrasound replaces cervical screening D. Start cervical screening only after age 50 E. No screening needed after sexual debut Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: For ages 30-65, perform primary HPV testing every 5 years (or approved alternatives). This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: USPSTF Cervical Cancer Screening Recommendation (2018, reaffirmed) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 464 / 560 Not answered During an annual wellness examination: a 44-year-old woman is being assessed for primary prevention statin indication; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Prescribe high-intensity statin to all adults over 30 B. Avoid statins if LDL is above 190 mg/dL C. Estimate 10-year ASCVD risk and consider moderate-intensity statin when indicated D. Use triglycerides alone to decide statin therapy E. Delay lipid treatment until symptomatic cardiovascular disease appears Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Estimate 10-year ASCVD risk and consider moderate-intensity statin when indicated. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: ACC/AHA Cholesterol Guideline (2018 with updates) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 465 / 560 Not answered At a preventive-care visit: a 52-year-old man is being assessed for initial drug therapy in hypertension with diabetes; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Start antihypertensive therapy and include ACE inhibitor or ARB when albuminuria is present B. Treat only with lifestyle changes despite persistent stage 2 hypertension C. Prefer chronic clonidine monotherapy as first-line approach D. Use loop diuretic as first-line monotherapy in all patients E. Avoid blood pressure medication until BP exceeds 180/110 Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Start antihypertensive therapy and include ACE inhibitor or ARB when albuminuria is present. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: ACC/AHA Hypertension Guideline (2017); ADA Standards of Care Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 93 of 112 Next → »