Family Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 11:54 Page 94 of 112 Attempt #2687 Overall: 0 / 560 questions answered Question 466 / 560 Not answered During primary-care follow-up: a 39-year-old woman is being assessed for initial therapy in type 2 diabetes; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Avoid lifestyle intervention at diagnosis B. Start insulin in every newly diagnosed patient C. Use sulfonylurea first in all overweight patients D. Treat only after A1c exceeds 12% E. Use metformin as first-line therapy unless contraindicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Use metformin as first-line therapy unless contraindicated. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 467 / 560 Not answered In a routine family medicine clinic encounter: a 57-year-old man is being assessed for glycemic target; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Use one fixed A1c target regardless of frailty or comorbidity B. For many nonpregnant adults, target A1c around <7% with individualized goals C. Target A1c <5% for all patients D. Stop A1c monitoring after diagnosis E. Ignore A1c and rely only on fasting glucose Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: For many nonpregnant adults, target A1c around <7% with individualized goals. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 468 / 560 Not answered At a chronic disease review appointment: a 47-year-old woman is being assessed for diabetic kidney protection; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Use NSAIDs long-term to protect renal function B. Use ACE inhibitor or ARB in diabetes with hypertension and albuminuria C. Delay kidney-protective therapy until dialysis is required D. Avoid RAAS blockade when albuminuria is present E. Replace BP control with high-protein diet Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Use ACE inhibitor or ARB in diabetes with hypertension and albuminuria. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: KDIGO CKD Guideline; ADA Standards of Care Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 469 / 560 Not answered During a same-day outpatient consultation: a 68-year-old man is being assessed for persistent asthma controller; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Use short-acting beta agonist alone as long-term controller B. Use antibiotics as maintenance therapy C. Start chronic oral steroid in all mild cases D. Initiate inhaled corticosteroid-containing therapy for persistent asthma E. Avoid spirometry in asthma follow-up Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Initiate inhaled corticosteroid-containing therapy for persistent asthma. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: GINA Global Strategy for Asthma Management (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 470 / 560 Not answered In a community health center follow-up: a 35-year-old woman is being assessed for copd exacerbation outpatient treatment; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Delay treatment until sputum culture is finalized in all cases B. Use long-term antibiotics for every COPD visit C. Treat moderate exacerbation with bronchodilators, short steroid course, and antibiotics when indicated D. Use diuretics as primary exacerbation treatment E. Stop all inhalers during exacerbation Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Treat moderate exacerbation with bronchodilators, short steroid course, and antibiotics when indicated. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: GOLD COPD Report (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 94 of 112 Next → »