Family Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 08:09 Page 98 of 112 Attempt #2350 Overall: 0 / 560 questions answered Question 486 / 560 Not answered In a community health center follow-up: a 35-year-old woman is being assessed for average-risk colorectal cancer screening; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Use CEA blood testing as the primary screening method B. Perform annual CT abdomen as first-line screening C. Screen only if iron-deficiency anemia develops D. Start colorectal cancer screening at age 45 with an approved strategy E. Delay screening until age 60 if asymptomatic Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Start colorectal cancer screening at age 45 with an approved strategy. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: USPSTF Colorectal Cancer Screening Recommendation (2021); ACS Colorectal Cancer Screening Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 487 / 560 Not answered At a continuity-of-care review: a 39-year-old woman is being assessed for breast cancer screening interval; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Offer biennial mammography for women aged 40-74 at average risk B. Replace mammography with annual breast MRI in average risk C. Screen only after a breast lump appears D. Stop screening at age 50 regardless of risk E. Start annual mammography at age 25 for all women Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Offer biennial mammography for women aged 40-74 at average risk. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: USPSTF Breast Cancer Screening Recommendation (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 488 / 560 Not answered During an annual wellness examination: a 52-year-old woman is being assessed for cervical cancer screening; What is the most appropriate next step? A. No screening needed after sexual debut B. Annual pelvic ultrasound replaces cervical screening C. Start cervical screening only after age 50 D. Pap smear every 6 months indefinitely E. For ages 30-65, perform primary HPV testing every 5 years (or approved alternatives) Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: For ages 30-65, perform primary HPV testing every 5 years (or approved alternatives). This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: USPSTF Cervical Cancer Screening Recommendation (2018, reaffirmed) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 489 / 560 Not answered At a preventive-care visit: a 52-year-old man is being assessed for primary prevention statin indication; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Estimate 10-year ASCVD risk and consider moderate-intensity statin when indicated B. Delay lipid treatment until symptomatic cardiovascular disease appears C. Use triglycerides alone to decide statin therapy D. Avoid statins if LDL is above 190 mg/dL E. Prescribe high-intensity statin to all adults over 30 Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Estimate 10-year ASCVD risk and consider moderate-intensity statin when indicated. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: ACC/AHA Cholesterol Guideline (2018 with updates) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 490 / 560 Not answered During primary-care follow-up: a 39-year-old woman is being assessed for initial drug therapy in hypertension with diabetes; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Start antihypertensive therapy and include ACE inhibitor or ARB when albuminuria is present B. Use loop diuretic as first-line monotherapy in all patients C. Avoid blood pressure medication until BP exceeds 180/110 D. Prefer chronic clonidine monotherapy as first-line approach E. Treat only with lifestyle changes despite persistent stage 2 hypertension Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Start antihypertensive therapy and include ACE inhibitor or ARB when albuminuria is present. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: ACC/AHA Hypertension Guideline (2017); ADA Standards of Care Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 98 of 112 Next → »