Allergy & Immunology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 07:08 Page 15 of 41 Attempt #2248 Overall: 0 / 201 questions answered Question 71 / 201 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 41-year-old woman presents with sneezing and nasal pruritus with seasonal pattern. Relevant risk context includes new drug exposure. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Drug hypersensitivity reaction B. Chronic spontaneous urticaria C. Allergic rhinitis D. Anaphylaxis E. Hereditary angioedema Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of sneezing and nasal pruritus with seasonal pattern with risk factors such as new drug exposure is most consistent with Chronic spontaneous urticaria. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Allergy & Immunology. Reference: WAO Anaphylaxis Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 72 / 201 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 35-year-old man has wheeze with hypotension after allergen exposure with risk profile of new drug exposure. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Asthma controller optimization with trigger control B. Stepwise antihistamine optimization C. Targeted therapy for bradykinin-mediated angioedema D. Immediate intramuscular epinephrine E. Intranasal corticosteroid-based rhinitis control Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Targeted therapy for bradykinin-mediated angioedema is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Allergy & Immunology. Reference: WAO Anaphylaxis Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 73 / 201 Not answered During ward handover: a 72-year-old man has recurrent sinopulmonary infections with risk profile of asthma comorbidity. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Targeted therapy for bradykinin-mediated angioedema B. Immediate intramuscular epinephrine C. Asthma controller optimization with trigger control D. Intranasal corticosteroid-based rhinitis control E. Stepwise antihistamine optimization Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Stepwise antihistamine optimization is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Allergy & Immunology. Reference: GINA Asthma Strategy; Allergy & Immunology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 74 / 201 Not answered During morning rounds: a 29-year-old woman is evaluated for wheeze with hypotension after allergen exposure in the context of asthma comorbidity. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Immunoglobulin level assessment B. Detailed trigger-focused allergy history C. Specific IgE testing in context D. Pulmonary function testing E. Skin-prick testing when appropriate Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Specific IgE testing in context is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Allergy & Immunology. Reference: ARIA Rhinitis Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 75 / 201 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 25-year-old man presents with transient pruritic wheals. Relevant risk context includes new drug exposure. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Anaphylaxis B. Drug hypersensitivity reaction C. Hereditary angioedema D. Allergic rhinitis E. Chronic spontaneous urticaria Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of transient pruritic wheals with risk factors such as new drug exposure is most consistent with Anaphylaxis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Allergy & Immunology. Reference: WAO Anaphylaxis Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 15 of 41 Next → »