Allergy & Immunology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 09:04 Page 26 of 41 Attempt #2450 Overall: 0 / 201 questions answered Question 126 / 201 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 50-year-old man presents with transient pruritic wheals. Relevant risk context includes asthma comorbidity. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Primary antibody deficiency suspicion B. Drug hypersensitivity reaction C. Hereditary angioedema D. Anaphylaxis E. Chronic spontaneous urticaria Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of transient pruritic wheals with risk factors such as asthma comorbidity is most consistent with Primary antibody deficiency suspicion. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Allergy & Immunology. Reference: ARIA Rhinitis Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 127 / 201 Not answered During morning rounds: a 50-year-old man is evaluated for transient pruritic wheals in the context of immune deficiency family history. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Skin-prick testing when appropriate B. Specific IgE testing in context C. Immunoglobulin level assessment D. Pulmonary function testing E. Complement profile including C4 Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Skin-prick testing when appropriate is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Allergy & Immunology. Reference: GINA Asthma Strategy; Allergy & Immunology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 128 / 201 Not answered During ward handover: a 51-year-old man has sneezing and nasal pruritus with seasonal pattern with risk profile of asthma comorbidity. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Stepwise antihistamine optimization B. Asthma controller optimization with trigger control C. Intranasal corticosteroid-based rhinitis control D. Targeted therapy for bradykinin-mediated angioedema E. Immediate intramuscular epinephrine Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Stepwise antihistamine optimization is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Allergy & Immunology. Reference: GINA Asthma Strategy; Allergy & Immunology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 129 / 201 Not answered During ward handover: a 71-year-old woman presents with recurrent sinopulmonary infections. Relevant risk context includes atopy. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Allergic rhinitis B. Primary antibody deficiency suspicion C. Chronic spontaneous urticaria D. Hereditary angioedema E. Anaphylaxis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of recurrent sinopulmonary infections with risk factors such as atopy is most consistent with Primary antibody deficiency suspicion. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Allergy & Immunology. Reference: WAO Anaphylaxis Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 130 / 201 Not answered During morning rounds: a 50-year-old man presents with transient pruritic wheals. Relevant risk context includes family allergy history. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Drug hypersensitivity reaction B. Primary antibody deficiency suspicion C. Chronic spontaneous urticaria D. Allergic rhinitis E. Hereditary angioedema Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of transient pruritic wheals with risk factors such as family allergy history is most consistent with Allergic rhinitis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Allergy & Immunology. Reference: EAACI Position Papers; Allergy & Immunology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 26 of 41 Next → »