Allergy & Immunology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 05:14 Page 30 of 41 Attempt #2035 Overall: 0 / 201 questions answered Question 146 / 201 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 71-year-old man has transient pruritic wheals with risk profile of food trigger pattern. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Targeted therapy for bradykinin-mediated angioedema B. Emergency action plan and patient education C. Asthma controller optimization with trigger control D. Intranasal corticosteroid-based rhinitis control E. Immediate intramuscular epinephrine Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Immediate intramuscular epinephrine is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Allergy & Immunology. Reference: ARIA Rhinitis Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 147 / 201 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 38-year-old woman presents with recurrent sinopulmonary infections. Relevant risk context includes immune deficiency family history. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Allergic rhinitis B. Chronic spontaneous urticaria C. Drug hypersensitivity reaction D. Hereditary angioedema E. Primary antibody deficiency suspicion Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of recurrent sinopulmonary infections with risk factors such as immune deficiency family history is most consistent with Hereditary angioedema. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Allergy & Immunology. Reference: EAACI Position Papers; Allergy & Immunology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 148 / 201 Not answered During ward handover: a 58-year-old man presents with reaction after new medication. Relevant risk context includes food trigger pattern. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Hereditary angioedema B. Anaphylaxis C. Chronic spontaneous urticaria D. Primary antibody deficiency suspicion E. Allergic rhinitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of reaction after new medication with risk factors such as food trigger pattern is most consistent with Allergic rhinitis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Allergy & Immunology. Reference: GINA Asthma Strategy; Allergy & Immunology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 149 / 201 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 56-year-old man is evaluated for recurrent swelling without urticaria in the context of new drug exposure. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Complement profile including C4 B. Skin-prick testing when appropriate C. Specific IgE testing in context D. Immunoglobulin level assessment E. Detailed trigger-focused allergy history Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Complement profile including C4 is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Allergy & Immunology. Reference: WAO Anaphylaxis Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 150 / 201 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 81-year-old woman has recurrent swelling without urticaria with risk profile of asthma comorbidity. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Asthma controller optimization with trigger control B. Stepwise antihistamine optimization C. Intranasal corticosteroid-based rhinitis control D. Targeted therapy for bradykinin-mediated angioedema E. Immediate intramuscular epinephrine Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Intranasal corticosteroid-based rhinitis control is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Allergy & Immunology. Reference: WAO Anaphylaxis Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 30 of 41 Next → »