Gastroenterology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 06:44 Page 15 of 58 Attempt #2210 Overall: 0 / 286 questions answered Question 71 / 286 Not answered During morning rounds: A 54-year-old man has chronic heartburn with alarm dysphagia and weight loss. What is the best next step? A. Upper GI endoscopy B. Empirical antacid only for 1 year C. Colonoscopy first D. H. pylori breath test only E. Reassurance Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: [Gastroenterology] GERD symptoms with alarm features such as dysphagia or weight loss require endoscopy. Reference: ACG GERD Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 72 / 286 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: A patient with cirrhosis develops ascites and fever. Diagnostic paracentesis shows PMN count 320 cells/mm3. What is the diagnosis? A. Irritable bowel syndrome B. Acute appendicitis ruled out by ascites C. Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis D. Nephrotic syndrome only E. Uncomplicated ascites Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: [Gastroenterology] Ascitic fluid PMN count >=250 cells/mm3 is diagnostic of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis in cirrhosis. Reference: AASLD Ascites and SBP Guidance. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 73 / 286 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: A 47-year-old man has HBsAg positive for 8 months. What does this indicate? A. Resolved hepatitis A B. Chronic hepatitis B infection C. Acute hepatitis C only D. Vaccine immunity only E. False positive always Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: [Gastroenterology] HBsAg persisting for more than 6 months defines chronic hepatitis B infection. Reference: AASLD Hepatitis B Guidance. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 74 / 286 Not answered In a ward handover scenario: A 36-year-old man has bloody diarrhea, urgency, and continuous inflammation from rectum proximally on colonoscopy. What is the likely diagnosis? A. Crohn disease with skip lesions B. Ischemic colitis only C. Diverticulitis D. Cholera E. Ulcerative colitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: [Gastroenterology] Continuous mucosal inflammation beginning at the rectum is typical of ulcerative colitis. Reference: ECCO/ACG Inflammatory Bowel Disease Guidance. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 75 / 286 Not answered During preoperative assessment: A 54-year-old man has chronic heartburn with alarm dysphagia and weight loss. What is the best next step? A. Upper GI endoscopy B. Empirical antacid only for 1 year C. Colonoscopy first D. H. pylori breath test only E. Reassurance Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: [Gastroenterology] GERD symptoms with alarm features such as dysphagia or weight loss require endoscopy. Reference: ACG GERD Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 15 of 58 Next → »