Gastroenterology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 08:15 Page 17 of 58 Attempt #2371 Overall: 0 / 286 questions answered Question 81 / 286 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 67-year-old woman has hematemesis with melena with risk profile of family history of IBD. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Variceal bleeding protocol when indicated B. Proton pump inhibitor-based therapy C. IBD induction therapy per severity D. Urgent ERCP for biliary obstruction with sepsis E. Aggressive IV fluid resuscitation in pancreatitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Aggressive IV fluid resuscitation in pancreatitis is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Gastroenterology. Reference: AASLD Guidance for Cirrhosis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 82 / 286 Not answered A 45-year-old male presents with epigastric pain relieved by food. He tests positive for H. pylori. What is the most appropriate treatment regimen? A. Single antibiotic therapy B. Triple therapy with PPI C. Dual therapy with H2 blocker D. Monotherapy with PPI E. Antacids alone Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Triple therapy consisting of PPI plus two antibiotics (amoxicillin and clarithromycin) achieves >90% eradication rate for H. pylori. Reference: American College of Gastroenterology Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 83 / 286 Not answered A 25-year-old with newly diagnosed Crohn's disease has moderate inflammation. Which is the most appropriate initial therapeutic approach? A. Mesalamine alone B. Corticosteroids C. TNF-alpha inhibitors D. Surgical resection E. Antidiarrheals Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Corticosteroids are effective for inducing remission in moderate active Crohn's disease and are used as first-line induction therapy. Reference: Gastroenterology Society Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 84 / 286 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 62-year-old woman presents with bloody diarrhea with urgency. Relevant risk context includes chronic viral hepatitis. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Decompensated cirrhosis B. Crohn disease C. Acute pancreatitis D. Peptic ulcer disease E. Ulcerative colitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of bloody diarrhea with urgency with risk factors such as chronic viral hepatitis is most consistent with Acute pancreatitis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Gastroenterology. Reference: ECCO Guidelines for Inflammatory Bowel Disease Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 85 / 286 Not answered A 30-year-old with ulcerative colitis extending to the splenic flexure has moderate disease activity. Most appropriate induction therapy: A. Mesalamine oral and topical B. Corticosteroids C. TNF-alpha inhibitors D. Surgical colectomy E. Antidiarrheals Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Corticosteroids are most effective for inducing remission in moderate to severe ulcerative colitis. Reference: American College of Gastroenterology Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 17 of 58 Next → »