Gastroenterology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 09:04 Page 18 of 58 Attempt #2437 Overall: 0 / 286 questions answered Question 86 / 286 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 30-year-old man presents with epigastric pain relieved by food. Relevant risk context includes heavy alcohol intake. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Crohn disease B. Decompensated cirrhosis C. Acute pancreatitis D. Acute cholangitis E. Peptic ulcer disease Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of epigastric pain relieved by food with risk factors such as heavy alcohol intake is most consistent with Crohn disease. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Gastroenterology. Reference: ECCO Guidelines for Inflammatory Bowel Disease Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 87 / 286 Not answered During morning rounds: a 51-year-old woman is evaluated for epigastric pain radiating to back in the context of metabolic risk factors. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. MRCP when indicated B. Upper endoscopy C. Diagnostic paracentesis D. Abdominal ultrasound E. Colonoscopy with biopsy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Upper endoscopy is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Gastroenterology. Reference: ECCO Guidelines for Inflammatory Bowel Disease Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 88 / 286 Not answered A 60-year-old has colonoscopy finding a 15 mm tubular adenoma removed by polypectomy. Most appropriate follow-up: A. No further colonoscopy needed B. Surveillance colonoscopy in 5-10 years C. Repeat colonoscopy in 3 years D. Colonoscopy in 1 year E. Annual colonoscopy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Adenomatous polyps require surveillance colonoscopy; timing depends on polyp size number and pathology. Reference: American College of Gastroenterology Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 89 / 286 Not answered A 45-year-old with hepatitis C RNA positive and cirrhosis. Most appropriate therapy: A. No treatment needed B. Direct-acting antivirals such as sofosbuvir C. Interferon only D. Liver transplant immediately E. Supportive care only Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Direct-acting antivirals cure >95% of hepatitis C infections and should be used for all patients including those with cirrhosis. Reference: American Association for the Study of Liver Diseases Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 90 / 286 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 59-year-old woman is evaluated for right upper quadrant pain with jaundice in the context of heavy alcohol intake. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Diagnostic paracentesis B. Serum lipase measurement C. Upper endoscopy D. MRCP when indicated E. Abdominal ultrasound Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Upper endoscopy is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Gastroenterology. Reference: Tokyo Guidelines for Cholangitis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 18 of 58 Next → »