Gastroenterology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 12:47 Page 22 of 58 Attempt #2741 Overall: 0 / 286 questions answered Question 106 / 286 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 67-year-old woman has epigastric pain relieved by food with risk profile of gallstones. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Variceal bleeding protocol when indicated B. IBD induction therapy per severity C. Proton pump inhibitor-based therapy D. Urgent ERCP for biliary obstruction with sepsis E. Aggressive IV fluid resuscitation in pancreatitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Variceal bleeding protocol when indicated is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Gastroenterology. Reference: ACG Clinical Guidelines for GI Disorders Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 107 / 286 Not answered During morning rounds: a 41-year-old man is evaluated for right upper quadrant pain with jaundice in the context of chronic viral hepatitis. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Upper endoscopy B. Diagnostic paracentesis C. MRCP when indicated D. Serum lipase measurement E. Colonoscopy with biopsy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Upper endoscopy is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Gastroenterology. Reference: AASLD Guidance for Cirrhosis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 108 / 286 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 38-year-old man presents with epigastric pain relieved by food. Relevant risk context includes chronic viral hepatitis. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute cholangitis B. Crohn disease C. Decompensated cirrhosis D. Ulcerative colitis E. Peptic ulcer disease Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of epigastric pain relieved by food with risk factors such as chronic viral hepatitis is most consistent with Acute cholangitis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Gastroenterology. Reference: AASLD Guidance for Cirrhosis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 109 / 286 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 33-year-old man has ascites with confusion with risk profile of family history of IBD. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Proton pump inhibitor-based therapy B. IBD induction therapy per severity C. Aggressive IV fluid resuscitation in pancreatitis D. Urgent ERCP for biliary obstruction with sepsis E. Variceal bleeding protocol when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: IBD induction therapy per severity is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Gastroenterology. Reference: ECCO Guidelines for Inflammatory Bowel Disease Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 110 / 286 Not answered During ward handover: a 39-year-old woman presents with epigastric pain relieved by food. Relevant risk context includes NSAID use. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Decompensated cirrhosis B. Acute pancreatitis C. Peptic ulcer disease D. Ulcerative colitis E. Acute cholangitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of epigastric pain relieved by food with risk factors such as NSAID use is most consistent with Acute pancreatitis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Gastroenterology. Reference: ECCO Guidelines for Inflammatory Bowel Disease Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 22 of 58 Next → »