Gastroenterology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 08:06 Page 44 of 58 Attempt #2341 Overall: 0 / 286 questions answered Question 216 / 286 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 57-year-old man has epigastric pain radiating to back with risk profile of chronic viral hepatitis. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Urgent ERCP for biliary obstruction with sepsis B. Proton pump inhibitor-based therapy C. Aggressive IV fluid resuscitation in pancreatitis D. IBD induction therapy per severity E. Lactulose for overt hepatic encephalopathy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Proton pump inhibitor-based therapy is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Gastroenterology. Reference: ACG Clinical Guidelines for GI Disorders Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 217 / 286 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 55-year-old man has epigastric pain radiating to back with risk profile of NSAID use. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Proton pump inhibitor-based therapy B. Urgent ERCP for biliary obstruction with sepsis C. Lactulose for overt hepatic encephalopathy D. Aggressive IV fluid resuscitation in pancreatitis E. Variceal bleeding protocol when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Lactulose for overt hepatic encephalopathy is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Gastroenterology. Reference: Tokyo Guidelines for Cholangitis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 218 / 286 Not answered During ward handover: a 32-year-old man has ascites with confusion with risk profile of heavy alcohol intake. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. IBD induction therapy per severity B. Aggressive IV fluid resuscitation in pancreatitis C. Variceal bleeding protocol when indicated D. Proton pump inhibitor-based therapy E. Urgent ERCP for biliary obstruction with sepsis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Aggressive IV fluid resuscitation in pancreatitis is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Gastroenterology. Reference: ECCO Guidelines for Inflammatory Bowel Disease Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 219 / 286 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 79-year-old woman presents with ascites with confusion. Relevant risk context includes gallstones. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Ulcerative colitis B. Acute cholangitis C. Acute pancreatitis D. Peptic ulcer disease E. Crohn disease Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of ascites with confusion with risk factors such as gallstones is most consistent with Crohn disease. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Gastroenterology. Reference: ACG Clinical Guidelines for GI Disorders Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 220 / 286 Not answered During ward handover: a 80-year-old woman is evaluated for ascites with confusion in the context of NSAID use. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Diagnostic paracentesis B. Abdominal ultrasound C. Serum lipase measurement D. MRCP when indicated E. Upper endoscopy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: MRCP when indicated is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Gastroenterology. Reference: ECCO Guidelines for Inflammatory Bowel Disease Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 44 of 58 Next → »