Pulmonology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 06:01 Page 14 of 57 Attempt #2110 Overall: 0 / 285 questions answered Question 66 / 285 Not answered At a primary-care follow-up visit: A patient has acute urticaria without airway, breathing, circulation, or GI compromise. What is first-line symptomatic therapy? (Variant 433) A. IM epinephrine for every isolated wheal B. Long-term oral steroid for all C. Second-generation H1 antihistamine D. Antibiotic E. Warfarin Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: [Pulmonology] Acute urticaria without anaphylaxis is treated with non-sedating H1 antihistamines. Reference: EAACI/GA2LEN/EuroGuiDerm/APAAACI Urticaria Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 67 / 285 Not answered In a ward handover scenario: A 24-year-old woman has episodic wheeze, cough at night, and reversible airflow obstruction after salbutamol. What is the best diagnosis? A. COPD B. Bronchiectasis C. Pulmonary embolism D. Asthma E. Pneumothorax Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: [Pulmonology] Variable respiratory symptoms plus reversible expiratory airflow limitation support asthma. Reference: GINA Global Strategy for Asthma Management and Prevention 2025/2026. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 68 / 285 Not answered In a ward handover scenario: A 67-year-old heavy smoker has chronic dyspnea and post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC 0.62. What is the diagnosis? A. Restrictive lung disease B. Asthma excluded by smoking alone C. Pulmonary edema D. Normal spirometry E. COPD Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: [Pulmonology] Persistent post-bronchodilator airflow obstruction confirms COPD in an appropriate exposure history. Reference: GOLD COPD Report 2026. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 69 / 285 Not answered In a ward handover scenario: A 33-year-old woman has sudden pleuritic chest pain, dyspnea, tachycardia, and recent long-haul flight. What is the best initial risk assessment tool? A. Clinical pretest probability such as Wells score B. Serum calcium only C. Peak flow diary D. Sputum culture only E. Skin prick test Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: [Pulmonology] Suspected pulmonary embolism should be assessed using clinical pretest probability to guide D-dimer and imaging. Reference: ESC Pulmonary Embolism Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 70 / 285 Not answered In a ward handover scenario: A 70-year-old man with COPD has increased dyspnea, sputum volume, and sputum purulence. What does this suggest? A. Stable COPD only B. Acute COPD exacerbation where bronchodilators and selected antibiotics/steroids may be needed C. Acute asthma excluded by age D. Lung cancer diagnosis without imaging E. Tuberculosis proven Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: [Pulmonology] The cardinal symptoms of COPD exacerbation include increased dyspnea, sputum volume, and purulence; treatment depends on severity. Reference: GOLD COPD Report 2026. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 14 of 57 Next → »