Vascular Surgery Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 08:11 Page 16 of 49 Attempt #2358 Overall: 0 / 244 questions answered Question 76 / 244 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 39-year-old man has unilateral leg swelling and pain with risk profile of diabetes. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Risk-factor modification and antiplatelet therapy B. Revascularization planning when indicated C. Immediate anticoagulation when not contraindicated D. Aneurysm surveillance or intervention by threshold E. Structured limb salvage pathway Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Risk-factor modification and antiplatelet therapy is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Vascular Surgery. Reference: AHA/ACC PAD Guideline; Vascular Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 77 / 244 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 62-year-old woman presents with rest pain with tissue loss. Relevant risk context includes atrial fibrillation. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Critical limb-threatening ischemia B. Deep venous thrombosis C. Symptomatic carotid stenosis D. Peripheral arterial disease claudication E. Acute limb ischemia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of rest pain with tissue loss with risk factors such as atrial fibrillation is most consistent with Symptomatic carotid stenosis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Vascular Surgery. Reference: AHA/ACC PAD Guideline; Vascular Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 78 / 244 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 55-year-old woman presents with transient neurologic deficit with carotid bruit. Relevant risk context includes diabetes. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Peripheral arterial disease claudication B. Critical limb-threatening ischemia C. Deep venous thrombosis D. Symptomatic carotid stenosis E. Acute limb ischemia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of transient neurologic deficit with carotid bruit with risk factors such as diabetes is most consistent with Symptomatic carotid stenosis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Vascular Surgery. Reference: ESVS Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 79 / 244 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 56-year-old woman has rest pain with tissue loss with risk profile of diabetes. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Structured limb salvage pathway B. Revascularization planning when indicated C. Immediate anticoagulation when not contraindicated D. Risk-factor modification and antiplatelet therapy E. Aneurysm surveillance or intervention by threshold Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Revascularization planning when indicated is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Vascular Surgery. Reference: AHA/ACC PAD Guideline; Vascular Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 80 / 244 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 33-year-old man is evaluated for painful pale pulseless cold limb in the context of atrial fibrillation. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Carotid duplex imaging B. Ankle-brachial index C. Duplex arterial ultrasound D. Urgent vascular examination with Doppler E. Duplex venous ultrasound Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Duplex arterial ultrasound is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Vascular Surgery. Reference: SVS Guidelines; Vascular Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 16 of 49 Next → »