Vascular Surgery Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 10:08 Page 18 of 49 Attempt #2570 Overall: 0 / 244 questions answered Question 86 / 244 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 54-year-old man is evaluated for pulsatile abdominal mass in the context of diabetes. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. CT angiography B. Duplex venous ultrasound C. Carotid duplex imaging D. Ankle-brachial index E. Urgent vascular examination with Doppler Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Ankle-brachial index is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Vascular Surgery. Reference: NICE VTE Guidance; Vascular Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 87 / 244 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 25-year-old woman has unilateral leg swelling and pain with risk profile of atrial fibrillation. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Aneurysm surveillance or intervention by threshold B. Emergency vascular referral C. Structured limb salvage pathway D. Revascularization planning when indicated E. Risk-factor modification and antiplatelet therapy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Emergency vascular referral is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Vascular Surgery. Reference: SVS Guidelines; Vascular Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 88 / 244 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 74-year-old woman has calf pain on exertion relieved by rest with risk profile of atrial fibrillation. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Emergency vascular referral B. Revascularization planning when indicated C. Aneurysm surveillance or intervention by threshold D. Risk-factor modification and antiplatelet therapy E. Structured limb salvage pathway Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Emergency vascular referral is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Vascular Surgery. Reference: SVS Guidelines; Vascular Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 89 / 244 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 80-year-old woman has calf pain on exertion relieved by rest with risk profile of hypertension. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Emergency vascular referral B. Risk-factor modification and antiplatelet therapy C. Revascularization planning when indicated D. Aneurysm surveillance or intervention by threshold E. Immediate anticoagulation when not contraindicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Emergency vascular referral is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Vascular Surgery. Reference: ESVS Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 90 / 244 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 32-year-old man presents with rest pain with tissue loss. Relevant risk context includes diabetes. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Symptomatic carotid stenosis B. Acute limb ischemia C. Abdominal aortic aneurysm concern D. Deep venous thrombosis E. Critical limb-threatening ischemia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of rest pain with tissue loss with risk factors such as diabetes is most consistent with Critical limb-threatening ischemia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Vascular Surgery. Reference: NICE VTE Guidance; Vascular Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 18 of 49 Next → »