Vascular Surgery Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 11:01 Page 19 of 49 Attempt #2644 Overall: 0 / 244 questions answered Question 91 / 244 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 47-year-old woman is evaluated for rest pain with tissue loss in the context of diabetes. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Duplex venous ultrasound B. CT angiography C. Duplex arterial ultrasound D. Ankle-brachial index E. Carotid duplex imaging Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: CT angiography is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Vascular Surgery. Reference: NICE VTE Guidance; Vascular Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 92 / 244 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 31-year-old man presents with transient neurologic deficit with carotid bruit. Relevant risk context includes diabetes. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Symptomatic carotid stenosis B. Acute limb ischemia C. Abdominal aortic aneurysm concern D. Deep venous thrombosis E. Critical limb-threatening ischemia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of transient neurologic deficit with carotid bruit with risk factors such as diabetes is most consistent with Abdominal aortic aneurysm concern. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Vascular Surgery. Reference: SVS Guidelines; Vascular Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 93 / 244 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 41-year-old man has unilateral leg swelling and pain with risk profile of hyperlipidemia. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Structured limb salvage pathway B. Aneurysm surveillance or intervention by threshold C. Immediate anticoagulation when not contraindicated D. Revascularization planning when indicated E. Risk-factor modification and antiplatelet therapy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Risk-factor modification and antiplatelet therapy is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Vascular Surgery. Reference: ESVS Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 94 / 244 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 80-year-old woman has rest pain with tissue loss with risk profile of hypertension. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Structured limb salvage pathway B. Emergency vascular referral C. Immediate anticoagulation when not contraindicated D. Risk-factor modification and antiplatelet therapy E. Revascularization planning when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Structured limb salvage pathway is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Vascular Surgery. Reference: ESVS Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 95 / 244 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 64-year-old woman presents with pulsatile abdominal mass. Relevant risk context includes hypertension. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Critical limb-threatening ischemia B. Peripheral arterial disease claudication C. Deep venous thrombosis D. Abdominal aortic aneurysm concern E. Symptomatic carotid stenosis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of pulsatile abdominal mass with risk factors such as hypertension is most consistent with Critical limb-threatening ischemia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Vascular Surgery. Reference: NICE VTE Guidance; Vascular Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 19 of 49 Next → »