Vascular Surgery Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 11:54 Page 20 of 49 Attempt #2692 Overall: 0 / 244 questions answered Question 96 / 244 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 67-year-old woman has unilateral leg swelling and pain with risk profile of smoking. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Structured limb salvage pathway B. Revascularization planning when indicated C. Aneurysm surveillance or intervention by threshold D. Emergency vascular referral E. Immediate anticoagulation when not contraindicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Revascularization planning when indicated is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Vascular Surgery. Reference: ESVS Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 97 / 244 Not answered During ward handover: a 40-year-old woman is evaluated for rest pain with tissue loss in the context of diabetes. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. CT angiography B. Ankle-brachial index C. Urgent vascular examination with Doppler D. Duplex arterial ultrasound E. Carotid duplex imaging Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Ankle-brachial index is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Vascular Surgery. Reference: AHA/ACC PAD Guideline; Vascular Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 98 / 244 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 41-year-old man presents with painful pale pulseless cold limb. Relevant risk context includes atrial fibrillation. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Critical limb-threatening ischemia B. Deep venous thrombosis C. Peripheral arterial disease claudication D. Acute limb ischemia E. Abdominal aortic aneurysm concern Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of painful pale pulseless cold limb with risk factors such as atrial fibrillation is most consistent with Deep venous thrombosis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Vascular Surgery. Reference: ESVS Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 99 / 244 Not answered During ward handover: a 78-year-old woman presents with rest pain with tissue loss. Relevant risk context includes advanced age. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Critical limb-threatening ischemia B. Deep venous thrombosis C. Acute limb ischemia D. Peripheral arterial disease claudication E. Symptomatic carotid stenosis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of rest pain with tissue loss with risk factors such as advanced age is most consistent with Peripheral arterial disease claudication. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Vascular Surgery. Reference: SVS Guidelines; Vascular Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 100 / 244 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 67-year-old man has unilateral leg swelling and pain with risk profile of atrial fibrillation. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Revascularization planning when indicated B. Aneurysm surveillance or intervention by threshold C. Risk-factor modification and antiplatelet therapy D. Immediate anticoagulation when not contraindicated E. Emergency vascular referral Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Risk-factor modification and antiplatelet therapy is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Vascular Surgery. Reference: AHA/ACC PAD Guideline; Vascular Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 20 of 49 Next → »