Vascular Surgery Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 16:17 Page 25 of 49 Attempt #2910 Overall: 0 / 244 questions answered Question 121 / 244 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 59-year-old woman is evaluated for transient neurologic deficit with carotid bruit in the context of smoking. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Carotid duplex imaging B. Duplex arterial ultrasound C. Duplex venous ultrasound D. Urgent vascular examination with Doppler E. CT angiography Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Urgent vascular examination with Doppler is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Vascular Surgery. Reference: NICE VTE Guidance; Vascular Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 122 / 244 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 42-year-old man presents with calf pain on exertion relieved by rest. Relevant risk context includes hyperlipidemia. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Deep venous thrombosis B. Peripheral arterial disease claudication C. Critical limb-threatening ischemia D. Abdominal aortic aneurysm concern E. Acute limb ischemia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of calf pain on exertion relieved by rest with risk factors such as hyperlipidemia is most consistent with Abdominal aortic aneurysm concern. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Vascular Surgery. Reference: NICE VTE Guidance; Vascular Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 123 / 244 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 65-year-old woman has painful pale pulseless cold limb with risk profile of smoking. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Structured limb salvage pathway B. Risk-factor modification and antiplatelet therapy C. Aneurysm surveillance or intervention by threshold D. Revascularization planning when indicated E. Emergency vascular referral Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Risk-factor modification and antiplatelet therapy is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Vascular Surgery. Reference: AHA/ACC PAD Guideline; Vascular Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 124 / 244 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 75-year-old woman has unilateral leg swelling and pain with risk profile of smoking. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Emergency vascular referral B. Immediate anticoagulation when not contraindicated C. Structured limb salvage pathway D. Aneurysm surveillance or intervention by threshold E. Risk-factor modification and antiplatelet therapy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Risk-factor modification and antiplatelet therapy is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Vascular Surgery. Reference: AHA/ACC PAD Guideline; Vascular Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 125 / 244 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 42-year-old man presents with transient neurologic deficit with carotid bruit. Relevant risk context includes diabetes. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Critical limb-threatening ischemia B. Abdominal aortic aneurysm concern C. Deep venous thrombosis D. Symptomatic carotid stenosis E. Acute limb ischemia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of transient neurologic deficit with carotid bruit with risk factors such as diabetes is most consistent with Acute limb ischemia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Vascular Surgery. Reference: ESVS Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 25 of 49 Next → »