Vascular Surgery Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 10:59 Page 32 of 49 Attempt #2621 Overall: 0 / 244 questions answered Question 156 / 244 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 79-year-old man has painful pale pulseless cold limb with risk profile of hypertension. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Structured limb salvage pathway B. Aneurysm surveillance or intervention by threshold C. Immediate anticoagulation when not contraindicated D. Revascularization planning when indicated E. Risk-factor modification and antiplatelet therapy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Aneurysm surveillance or intervention by threshold is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Vascular Surgery. Reference: ESVS Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 157 / 244 Not answered During morning rounds: a 61-year-old woman has calf pain on exertion relieved by rest with risk profile of atrial fibrillation. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Risk-factor modification and antiplatelet therapy B. Emergency vascular referral C. Aneurysm surveillance or intervention by threshold D. Revascularization planning when indicated E. Immediate anticoagulation when not contraindicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Risk-factor modification and antiplatelet therapy is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Vascular Surgery. Reference: SVS Guidelines; Vascular Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 158 / 244 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 74-year-old woman is evaluated for transient neurologic deficit with carotid bruit in the context of hypertension. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Duplex arterial ultrasound B. Urgent vascular examination with Doppler C. Duplex venous ultrasound D. Ankle-brachial index E. CT angiography Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Ankle-brachial index is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Vascular Surgery. Reference: SVS Guidelines; Vascular Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 159 / 244 Not answered During morning rounds: a 56-year-old man is evaluated for calf pain on exertion relieved by rest in the context of smoking. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. CT angiography B. Duplex venous ultrasound C. Urgent vascular examination with Doppler D. Duplex arterial ultrasound E. Ankle-brachial index Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Duplex arterial ultrasound is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Vascular Surgery. Reference: SVS Guidelines; Vascular Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 160 / 244 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 32-year-old man is evaluated for pulsatile abdominal mass in the context of atrial fibrillation. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. CT angiography B. Duplex arterial ultrasound C. Ankle-brachial index D. Carotid duplex imaging E. Duplex venous ultrasound Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Duplex venous ultrasound is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Vascular Surgery. Reference: AHA/ACC PAD Guideline; Vascular Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 32 of 49 Next → »