Vascular Surgery Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 08:08 Page 35 of 49 Attempt #2348 Overall: 0 / 244 questions answered Question 171 / 244 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 54-year-old woman presents with transient neurologic deficit with carotid bruit. Relevant risk context includes hyperlipidemia. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute limb ischemia B. Abdominal aortic aneurysm concern C. Deep venous thrombosis D. Symptomatic carotid stenosis E. Peripheral arterial disease claudication Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of transient neurologic deficit with carotid bruit with risk factors such as hyperlipidemia is most consistent with Acute limb ischemia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Vascular Surgery. Reference: NICE VTE Guidance; Vascular Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 172 / 244 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 65-year-old woman presents with painful pale pulseless cold limb. Relevant risk context includes smoking. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Critical limb-threatening ischemia B. Acute limb ischemia C. Deep venous thrombosis D. Peripheral arterial disease claudication E. Symptomatic carotid stenosis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of painful pale pulseless cold limb with risk factors such as smoking is most consistent with Deep venous thrombosis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Vascular Surgery. Reference: AHA/ACC PAD Guideline; Vascular Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 173 / 244 Not answered During morning rounds: a 31-year-old woman has unilateral leg swelling and pain with risk profile of smoking. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Immediate anticoagulation when not contraindicated B. Emergency vascular referral C. Aneurysm surveillance or intervention by threshold D. Risk-factor modification and antiplatelet therapy E. Structured limb salvage pathway Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Immediate anticoagulation when not contraindicated is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Vascular Surgery. Reference: SVS Guidelines; Vascular Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 174 / 244 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 71-year-old woman presents with transient neurologic deficit with carotid bruit. Relevant risk context includes atrial fibrillation. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Abdominal aortic aneurysm concern B. Acute limb ischemia C. Critical limb-threatening ischemia D. Peripheral arterial disease claudication E. Symptomatic carotid stenosis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of transient neurologic deficit with carotid bruit with risk factors such as atrial fibrillation is most consistent with Abdominal aortic aneurysm concern. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Vascular Surgery. Reference: ESVS Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 175 / 244 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 58-year-old man is evaluated for unilateral leg swelling and pain in the context of hypertension. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Urgent vascular examination with Doppler B. Carotid duplex imaging C. Duplex arterial ultrasound D. Duplex venous ultrasound E. Ankle-brachial index Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Ankle-brachial index is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Vascular Surgery. Reference: AHA/ACC PAD Guideline; Vascular Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 35 of 49 Next → »