Vascular Surgery Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 04:17 Page 39 of 49 Attempt #1929 Overall: 0 / 244 questions answered Question 191 / 244 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 44-year-old man has pulsatile abdominal mass with risk profile of smoking. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Emergency vascular referral B. Risk-factor modification and antiplatelet therapy C. Structured limb salvage pathway D. Revascularization planning when indicated E. Immediate anticoagulation when not contraindicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Emergency vascular referral is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Vascular Surgery. Reference: ESVS Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 192 / 244 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 82-year-old woman has unilateral leg swelling and pain with risk profile of atrial fibrillation. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Emergency vascular referral B. Aneurysm surveillance or intervention by threshold C. Immediate anticoagulation when not contraindicated D. Risk-factor modification and antiplatelet therapy E. Structured limb salvage pathway Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Structured limb salvage pathway is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Vascular Surgery. Reference: ESVS Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 193 / 244 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 60-year-old man is evaluated for calf pain on exertion relieved by rest in the context of diabetes. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Duplex arterial ultrasound B. Urgent vascular examination with Doppler C. CT angiography D. Carotid duplex imaging E. Ankle-brachial index Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: CT angiography is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Vascular Surgery. Reference: SVS Guidelines; Vascular Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 194 / 244 Not answered During morning rounds: a 72-year-old man presents with painful pale pulseless cold limb. Relevant risk context includes atrial fibrillation. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute limb ischemia B. Symptomatic carotid stenosis C. Critical limb-threatening ischemia D. Deep venous thrombosis E. Peripheral arterial disease claudication Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of painful pale pulseless cold limb with risk factors such as atrial fibrillation is most consistent with Acute limb ischemia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Vascular Surgery. Reference: SVS Guidelines; Vascular Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 195 / 244 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 37-year-old woman presents with painful pale pulseless cold limb. Relevant risk context includes smoking. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Peripheral arterial disease claudication B. Acute limb ischemia C. Deep venous thrombosis D. Symptomatic carotid stenosis E. Abdominal aortic aneurysm concern Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of painful pale pulseless cold limb with risk factors such as smoking is most consistent with Peripheral arterial disease claudication. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Vascular Surgery. Reference: ESVS Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 39 of 49 Next → »