Vascular Surgery Board Exam Started: Jul 12, 2026 23:39 Page 44 of 49 Attempt #1340 Overall: 0 / 244 questions answered Question 216 / 244 Not answered During morning rounds: a 47-year-old man presents with painful pale pulseless cold limb. Relevant risk context includes atrial fibrillation. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Critical limb-threatening ischemia B. Acute limb ischemia C. Abdominal aortic aneurysm concern D. Peripheral arterial disease claudication E. Deep venous thrombosis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of painful pale pulseless cold limb with risk factors such as atrial fibrillation is most consistent with Acute limb ischemia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Vascular Surgery. Reference: NICE VTE Guidance; Vascular Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 217 / 244 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 51-year-old woman presents with rest pain with tissue loss. Relevant risk context includes advanced age. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Peripheral arterial disease claudication B. Abdominal aortic aneurysm concern C. Critical limb-threatening ischemia D. Symptomatic carotid stenosis E. Deep venous thrombosis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of rest pain with tissue loss with risk factors such as advanced age is most consistent with Critical limb-threatening ischemia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Vascular Surgery. Reference: ESVS Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 218 / 244 Not answered During ward handover: a 52-year-old woman has calf pain on exertion relieved by rest with risk profile of hypertension. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Risk-factor modification and antiplatelet therapy B. Revascularization planning when indicated C. Structured limb salvage pathway D. Emergency vascular referral E. Immediate anticoagulation when not contraindicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Structured limb salvage pathway is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Vascular Surgery. Reference: NICE VTE Guidance; Vascular Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 219 / 244 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 54-year-old man is evaluated for unilateral leg swelling and pain in the context of atrial fibrillation. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Urgent vascular examination with Doppler B. Carotid duplex imaging C. Ankle-brachial index D. Duplex arterial ultrasound E. Duplex venous ultrasound Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Ankle-brachial index is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Vascular Surgery. Reference: ESVS Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 220 / 244 Not answered During ward handover: a 24-year-old woman presents with transient neurologic deficit with carotid bruit. Relevant risk context includes advanced age. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute limb ischemia B. Symptomatic carotid stenosis C. Deep venous thrombosis D. Peripheral arterial disease claudication E. Critical limb-threatening ischemia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of transient neurologic deficit with carotid bruit with risk factors such as advanced age is most consistent with Deep venous thrombosis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Vascular Surgery. Reference: SVS Guidelines; Vascular Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 44 of 49 Next → »