Vascular Surgery Board Exam Started: Jul 12, 2026 20:21 Page 48 of 49 Attempt #870 Overall: 0 / 244 questions answered Question 236 / 244 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 34-year-old man has unilateral leg swelling and pain with risk profile of smoking. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Risk-factor modification and antiplatelet therapy B. Structured limb salvage pathway C. Revascularization planning when indicated D. Immediate anticoagulation when not contraindicated E. Emergency vascular referral Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Emergency vascular referral is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Vascular Surgery. Reference: SVS Guidelines; Vascular Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 237 / 244 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 71-year-old woman presents with calf pain on exertion relieved by rest. Relevant risk context includes smoking. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Peripheral arterial disease claudication B. Abdominal aortic aneurysm concern C. Critical limb-threatening ischemia D. Deep venous thrombosis E. Symptomatic carotid stenosis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of calf pain on exertion relieved by rest with risk factors such as smoking is most consistent with Abdominal aortic aneurysm concern. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Vascular Surgery. Reference: SVS Guidelines; Vascular Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 238 / 244 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 45-year-old woman presents with unilateral leg swelling and pain. Relevant risk context includes smoking. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Symptomatic carotid stenosis B. Deep venous thrombosis C. Acute limb ischemia D. Critical limb-threatening ischemia E. Peripheral arterial disease claudication Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of unilateral leg swelling and pain with risk factors such as smoking is most consistent with Deep venous thrombosis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Vascular Surgery. Reference: SVS Guidelines; Vascular Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 239 / 244 Not answered During morning rounds: a 72-year-old man has pulsatile abdominal mass with risk profile of hypertension. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Revascularization planning when indicated B. Risk-factor modification and antiplatelet therapy C. Immediate anticoagulation when not contraindicated D. Aneurysm surveillance or intervention by threshold E. Emergency vascular referral Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Revascularization planning when indicated is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Vascular Surgery. Reference: NICE VTE Guidance; Vascular Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 240 / 244 Not answered During morning rounds: a 58-year-old man presents with transient neurologic deficit with carotid bruit. Relevant risk context includes smoking. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Peripheral arterial disease claudication B. Abdominal aortic aneurysm concern C. Critical limb-threatening ischemia D. Symptomatic carotid stenosis E. Acute limb ischemia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of transient neurologic deficit with carotid bruit with risk factors such as smoking is most consistent with Abdominal aortic aneurysm concern. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Vascular Surgery. Reference: AHA/ACC PAD Guideline; Vascular Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 48 of 49 Next → »