Obstetrics & Gynecology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 04:11 Page 12 of 40 Attempt #1898 Overall: 0 / 200 questions answered Question 56 / 200 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 34-year-old woman presents with cervical motion tenderness with fever. Relevant risk context includes placental disease history. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Severe preeclampsia B. Pelvic inflammatory disease C. Placenta previa D. HELLP syndrome E. Ectopic pregnancy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of cervical motion tenderness with fever with risk factors such as placental disease history is most consistent with Placenta previa. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Obstetrics & Gynecology. Reference: NICE Ectopic Pregnancy and Miscarriage Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 57 / 200 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 42-year-old woman presents with cervical motion tenderness with fever. Relevant risk context includes prior ectopic pregnancy. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Severe preeclampsia B. Pelvic inflammatory disease C. Postpartum hemorrhage D. Ectopic pregnancy E. Placenta previa Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of cervical motion tenderness with fever with risk factors such as prior ectopic pregnancy is most consistent with Postpartum hemorrhage. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Obstetrics & Gynecology. Reference: RCOG Green-top Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 58 / 200 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 22-year-old woman presents with severe hypertension with headache. Relevant risk context includes obesity. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Severe preeclampsia B. Pelvic inflammatory disease C. Ectopic pregnancy D. Postpartum hemorrhage E. HELLP syndrome Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of severe hypertension with headache with risk factors such as obesity is most consistent with Pelvic inflammatory disease. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Obstetrics & Gynecology. Reference: NICE Ectopic Pregnancy and Miscarriage Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 59 / 200 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 22-year-old woman presents with severe hypertension with headache. Relevant risk context includes prior ectopic pregnancy. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Ectopic pregnancy B. Pelvic inflammatory disease C. HELLP syndrome D. Placenta previa E. Postpartum hemorrhage Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of severe hypertension with headache with risk factors such as prior ectopic pregnancy is most consistent with Postpartum hemorrhage. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Obstetrics & Gynecology. Reference: NICE Ectopic Pregnancy and Miscarriage Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 60 / 200 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 22-year-old woman has severe hypertension with headache with risk profile of obesity. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Magnesium sulfate and blood pressure control when indicated B. Rh prophylaxis when indicated C. Hemorrhage protocol with uterotonic therapy D. Guideline-concordant PID antimicrobial regimen E. Urgent ectopic pregnancy pathway Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Guideline-concordant PID antimicrobial regimen is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Obstetrics & Gynecology. Reference: NICE Ectopic Pregnancy and Miscarriage Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 12 of 40 Next → »