Obstetrics & Gynecology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 10:04 Page 24 of 40 Attempt #2539 Overall: 0 / 200 questions answered Question 116 / 200 Not answered During ward handover: a 26-year-old woman presents with cervical motion tenderness with fever. Relevant risk context includes recent STI exposure. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. HELLP syndrome B. Pelvic inflammatory disease C. Placenta previa D. Severe preeclampsia E. Ectopic pregnancy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of cervical motion tenderness with fever with risk factors such as recent STI exposure is most consistent with Ectopic pregnancy. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Obstetrics & Gynecology. Reference: RCOG Green-top Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 117 / 200 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 35-year-old woman presents with right upper quadrant pain with thrombocytopenia. Relevant risk context includes first pregnancy. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Ectopic pregnancy B. Postpartum hemorrhage C. Placenta previa D. Severe preeclampsia E. Pelvic inflammatory disease Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of right upper quadrant pain with thrombocytopenia with risk factors such as first pregnancy is most consistent with Ectopic pregnancy. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Obstetrics & Gynecology. Reference: WHO Maternal Health Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 118 / 200 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 28-year-old woman is evaluated for cervical motion tenderness with fever in the context of first pregnancy. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Fetal monitoring assessment B. Infection workup when febrile C. Coagulation profile in hemorrhage D. Urine protein and maternal labs E. Pelvic examination with targeted testing Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Infection workup when febrile is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Obstetrics & Gynecology. Reference: RCOG Green-top Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 119 / 200 Not answered During ward handover: a 25-year-old woman has right upper quadrant pain with thrombocytopenia with risk profile of obesity. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Urgent ectopic pregnancy pathway B. Guideline-concordant PID antimicrobial regimen C. Magnesium sulfate and blood pressure control when indicated D. Hemorrhage protocol with uterotonic therapy E. Time-sensitive delivery planning per maternal-fetal status Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Guideline-concordant PID antimicrobial regimen is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Obstetrics & Gynecology. Reference: NICE Ectopic Pregnancy and Miscarriage Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 120 / 200 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 27-year-old woman presents with amenorrhea with unilateral pelvic pain. Relevant risk context includes multiple gestation. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Postpartum hemorrhage B. Ectopic pregnancy C. Placenta previa D. HELLP syndrome E. Severe preeclampsia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of amenorrhea with unilateral pelvic pain with risk factors such as multiple gestation is most consistent with Placenta previa. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Obstetrics & Gynecology. Reference: WHO Maternal Health Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 24 of 40 Next → »