Intensive Care Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 09:40 Page 18 of 40 Attempt #2517 Overall: 0 / 200 questions answered Question 86 / 200 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 27-year-old man has refractory hypoxemia with bilateral infiltrates with risk profile of major trauma. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Urgent decompression for tamponade when indicated B. Vasopressor support after fluid optimization C. Daily sedation and delirium minimization strategy D. Early sepsis bundle with source control E. Insulin-fluid-electrolyte protocol in DKA Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Urgent decompression for tamponade when indicated is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Intensive Care. Reference: ARDSNet and critical care ventilation evidence Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 87 / 200 Not answered During morning rounds: a 62-year-old woman presents with high anion gap acidosis with ketonemia. Relevant risk context includes major trauma. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute respiratory distress syndrome B. Ventilator-associated pneumonia concern C. Septic shock D. Cardiac tamponade after trauma E. Severe diabetic ketoacidosis in ICU Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of high anion gap acidosis with ketonemia with risk factors such as major trauma is most consistent with Ventilator-associated pneumonia concern. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Intensive Care. Reference: Surviving Sepsis Campaign Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 88 / 200 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 25-year-old man is evaluated for persistent hypotension with elevated lactate in the context of delayed source control. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Bedside ultrasound B. Hemodynamic responsiveness assessment C. Arterial blood gas D. Ventilator mechanics review E. Microbiologic cultures Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Ventilator mechanics review is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Intensive Care. Reference: SCCM Critical Care Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 89 / 200 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 58-year-old woman presents with persistent hypotension with elevated lactate. Relevant risk context includes high illness severity. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute respiratory distress syndrome B. Severe diabetic ketoacidosis in ICU C. Multiorgan dysfunction syndrome D. Cardiac tamponade after trauma E. Septic shock Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of persistent hypotension with elevated lactate with risk factors such as high illness severity is most consistent with Septic shock. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Intensive Care. Reference: SCCM Critical Care Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 90 / 200 Not answered During morning rounds: a 64-year-old man presents with new fever on mechanical ventilation. Relevant risk context includes high illness severity. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Ventilator-associated pneumonia concern B. Acute respiratory distress syndrome C. Severe diabetic ketoacidosis in ICU D. Cardiac tamponade after trauma E. Septic shock Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of new fever on mechanical ventilation with risk factors such as high illness severity is most consistent with Cardiac tamponade after trauma. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Intensive Care. Reference: ATLS and trauma critical care guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 18 of 40 Next → »