Intensive Care Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 06:59 Page 27 of 40 Attempt #2223 Overall: 0 / 200 questions answered Question 131 / 200 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 48-year-old woman presents with high anion gap acidosis with ketonemia. Relevant risk context includes recent severe infection. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Severe diabetic ketoacidosis in ICU B. Ventilator-associated pneumonia concern C. Septic shock D. Multiorgan dysfunction syndrome E. Acute respiratory distress syndrome Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of high anion gap acidosis with ketonemia with risk factors such as recent severe infection is most consistent with Acute respiratory distress syndrome. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Intensive Care. Reference: Surviving Sepsis Campaign Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 132 / 200 Not answered During morning rounds: a 49-year-old man is evaluated for new fever on mechanical ventilation in the context of major trauma. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Ventilator mechanics review B. Lactate and perfusion trend C. Arterial blood gas D. Hemodynamic responsiveness assessment E. Microbiologic cultures Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Lactate and perfusion trend is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Intensive Care. Reference: ATLS and trauma critical care guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 133 / 200 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 46-year-old woman is evaluated for new fever on mechanical ventilation in the context of recent severe infection. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Microbiologic cultures B. Ventilator mechanics review C. Lactate and perfusion trend D. Bedside ultrasound E. Arterial blood gas Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Lactate and perfusion trend is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Intensive Care. Reference: ATLS and trauma critical care guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 134 / 200 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 25-year-old woman has refractory hypoxemia with bilateral infiltrates with risk profile of prolonged ventilation. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Vasopressor support after fluid optimization B. Insulin-fluid-electrolyte protocol in DKA C. Daily sedation and delirium minimization strategy D. Early sepsis bundle with source control E. Lung-protective ventilation strategy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Lung-protective ventilation strategy is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Intensive Care. Reference: Surviving Sepsis Campaign Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 135 / 200 Not answered During ward handover: a 55-year-old woman has high anion gap acidosis with ketonemia with risk profile of prolonged ventilation. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Lung-protective ventilation strategy B. Urgent decompression for tamponade when indicated C. Vasopressor support after fluid optimization D. Daily sedation and delirium minimization strategy E. Early sepsis bundle with source control Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Daily sedation and delirium minimization strategy is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Intensive Care. Reference: Surviving Sepsis Campaign Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 27 of 40 Next → »