Intensive Care Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 05:08 Page 29 of 40 Attempt #2013 Overall: 0 / 200 questions answered Question 141 / 200 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 36-year-old woman presents with persistent hypotension with elevated lactate. Relevant risk context includes immunosuppression. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Septic shock B. Acute respiratory distress syndrome C. Severe diabetic ketoacidosis in ICU D. Multiorgan dysfunction syndrome E. Cardiac tamponade after trauma Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of persistent hypotension with elevated lactate with risk factors such as immunosuppression is most consistent with Severe diabetic ketoacidosis in ICU. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Intensive Care. Reference: ATLS and trauma critical care guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 142 / 200 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 71-year-old woman presents with persistent hypotension with elevated lactate. Relevant risk context includes recent severe infection. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Multiorgan dysfunction syndrome B. Severe diabetic ketoacidosis in ICU C. Ventilator-associated pneumonia concern D. Cardiac tamponade after trauma E. Septic shock Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of persistent hypotension with elevated lactate with risk factors such as recent severe infection is most consistent with Severe diabetic ketoacidosis in ICU. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Intensive Care. Reference: ATLS and trauma critical care guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 143 / 200 Not answered During ward handover: a 46-year-old man is evaluated for high anion gap acidosis with ketonemia in the context of prolonged ventilation. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Ventilator mechanics review B. Bedside ultrasound C. Hemodynamic responsiveness assessment D. Lactate and perfusion trend E. Microbiologic cultures Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Microbiologic cultures is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Intensive Care. Reference: Surviving Sepsis Campaign Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 144 / 200 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 35-year-old woman has persistent hypotension with elevated lactate with risk profile of major trauma. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Early sepsis bundle with source control B. Daily sedation and delirium minimization strategy C. Lung-protective ventilation strategy D. Vasopressor support after fluid optimization E. Urgent decompression for tamponade when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Daily sedation and delirium minimization strategy is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Intensive Care. Reference: ATLS and trauma critical care guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 145 / 200 Not answered During morning rounds: a 80-year-old woman presents with refractory hypoxemia with bilateral infiltrates. Relevant risk context includes major trauma. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Ventilator-associated pneumonia concern B. Severe diabetic ketoacidosis in ICU C. Cardiac tamponade after trauma D. Multiorgan dysfunction syndrome E. Acute respiratory distress syndrome Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of refractory hypoxemia with bilateral infiltrates with risk factors such as major trauma is most consistent with Multiorgan dysfunction syndrome. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Intensive Care. Reference: SCCM Critical Care Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 29 of 40 Next → »