Intensive Care Board Exam Started: Jul 12, 2026 20:20 Page 39 of 40 Attempt #847 Overall: 0 / 200 questions answered Question 191 / 200 Not answered During ward handover: a 72-year-old man has high anion gap acidosis with ketonemia with risk profile of recent severe infection. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Urgent decompression for tamponade when indicated B. Vasopressor support after fluid optimization C. Daily sedation and delirium minimization strategy D. Early sepsis bundle with source control E. Insulin-fluid-electrolyte protocol in DKA Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Insulin-fluid-electrolyte protocol in DKA is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Intensive Care. Reference: Surviving Sepsis Campaign Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 192 / 200 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 47-year-old man presents with refractory hypoxemia with bilateral infiltrates. Relevant risk context includes delayed source control. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Multiorgan dysfunction syndrome B. Severe diabetic ketoacidosis in ICU C. Septic shock D. Ventilator-associated pneumonia concern E. Cardiac tamponade after trauma Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of refractory hypoxemia with bilateral infiltrates with risk factors such as delayed source control is most consistent with Cardiac tamponade after trauma. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Intensive Care. Reference: ARDSNet and critical care ventilation evidence Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 193 / 200 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 41-year-old woman is evaluated for persistent hypotension with elevated lactate in the context of major trauma. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Arterial blood gas B. Lactate and perfusion trend C. Bedside ultrasound D. Microbiologic cultures E. Hemodynamic responsiveness assessment Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Lactate and perfusion trend is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Intensive Care. Reference: ARDSNet and critical care ventilation evidence Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 194 / 200 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 67-year-old woman is evaluated for persistent hypotension with elevated lactate in the context of major trauma. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Bedside ultrasound B. Ventilator mechanics review C. Arterial blood gas D. Hemodynamic responsiveness assessment E. Lactate and perfusion trend Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Ventilator mechanics review is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Intensive Care. Reference: ARDSNet and critical care ventilation evidence Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 195 / 200 Not answered During ward handover: a 31-year-old woman is evaluated for new fever on mechanical ventilation in the context of delayed source control. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Hemodynamic responsiveness assessment B. Bedside ultrasound C. Arterial blood gas D. Lactate and perfusion trend E. Ventilator mechanics review Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Arterial blood gas is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Intensive Care. Reference: SCCM Critical Care Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 39 of 40 Next → »