Internal Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 09:02 Page 17 of 40 Attempt #2429 Overall: 0 / 200 questions answered Question 81 / 200 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 50-year-old woman presents with fever with hypoxemia and focal infiltrate. Relevant risk context includes advanced age. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute biliary pancreatitis B. Acute upper GI bleeding C. Acute kidney injury D. Complicated community-acquired pneumonia E. Decompensated heart failure Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of fever with hypoxemia and focal infiltrate with risk factors such as advanced age is most consistent with Acute kidney injury. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Internal Medicine. Reference: ACG and ADA contemporary guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 82 / 200 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 73-year-old man has polyuria with high anion gap acidosis with risk profile of ischemic heart disease. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Evidence-based inpatient antimicrobial strategy when indicated B. VTE prophylaxis and supportive inpatient care C. Guideline-directed chronic disease optimization D. Early specialist escalation for organ dysfunction E. Condition-specific resuscitation protocol Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: VTE prophylaxis and supportive inpatient care is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Internal Medicine. Reference: AHA/ACC and ESC disease guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 83 / 200 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 51-year-old woman presents with polyuria with high anion gap acidosis. Relevant risk context includes gallstone disease. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Diabetic ketoacidosis B. Acute biliary pancreatitis C. Decompensated heart failure D. Acute upper GI bleeding E. Acute kidney injury Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of polyuria with high anion gap acidosis with risk factors such as gallstone disease is most consistent with Diabetic ketoacidosis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Internal Medicine. Reference: IDSA and ATS infectious disease guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 84 / 200 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 82-year-old man is evaluated for orthopnea with bibasal crackles in the context of NSAID exposure. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. ECG with cardiac biomarkers when indicated B. Comprehensive metabolic panel C. Targeted imaging for source diagnosis D. CBC and inflammatory markers E. ABG with lactate Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: CBC and inflammatory markers is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Internal Medicine. Reference: ACP and Society of Hospital Medicine guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 85 / 200 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 82-year-old woman has melena with hemodynamic instability with risk profile of gallstone disease. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Evidence-based inpatient antimicrobial strategy when indicated B. Condition-specific resuscitation protocol C. Guideline-directed chronic disease optimization D. VTE prophylaxis and supportive inpatient care E. Structured discharge and follow-up planning Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Condition-specific resuscitation protocol is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Internal Medicine. Reference: AHA/ACC and ESC disease guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 17 of 40 Next → »