Internal Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 11:52 Page 22 of 40 Attempt #2673 Overall: 0 / 200 questions answered Question 106 / 200 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 73-year-old man presents with polyuria with high anion gap acidosis. Relevant risk context includes ischemic heart disease. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute biliary pancreatitis B. Decompensated heart failure C. Diabetic ketoacidosis D. Complicated community-acquired pneumonia E. Acute upper GI bleeding Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of polyuria with high anion gap acidosis with risk factors such as ischemic heart disease is most consistent with Complicated community-acquired pneumonia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Internal Medicine. Reference: AHA/ACC and ESC disease guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 107 / 200 Not answered During ward handover: a 55-year-old woman presents with melena with hemodynamic instability. Relevant risk context includes ischemic heart disease. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute kidney injury B. Acute upper GI bleeding C. Acute biliary pancreatitis D. Diabetic ketoacidosis E. Decompensated heart failure Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of melena with hemodynamic instability with risk factors such as ischemic heart disease is most consistent with Acute biliary pancreatitis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Internal Medicine. Reference: AHA/ACC and ESC disease guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 108 / 200 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 58-year-old man is evaluated for fever with hypoxemia and focal infiltrate in the context of ischemic heart disease. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. ABG with lactate B. Blood and site cultures when infection suspected C. ECG with cardiac biomarkers when indicated D. Comprehensive metabolic panel E. Targeted imaging for source diagnosis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: ABG with lactate is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Internal Medicine. Reference: AHA/ACC and ESC disease guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 109 / 200 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 28-year-old woman has polyuria with high anion gap acidosis with risk profile of advanced age. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Condition-specific resuscitation protocol B. Evidence-based inpatient antimicrobial strategy when indicated C. Guideline-directed chronic disease optimization D. VTE prophylaxis and supportive inpatient care E. Structured discharge and follow-up planning Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Condition-specific resuscitation protocol is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Internal Medicine. Reference: ACP and Society of Hospital Medicine guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 110 / 200 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 52-year-old woman is evaluated for oliguria with rising creatinine in the context of poor diabetes control. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Blood and site cultures when infection suspected B. ABG with lactate C. CBC and inflammatory markers D. Comprehensive metabolic panel E. ECG with cardiac biomarkers when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: ECG with cardiac biomarkers when indicated is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Internal Medicine. Reference: ACP and Society of Hospital Medicine guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 22 of 40 Next → »