Internal Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 07:06 Page 27 of 40 Attempt #2236 Overall: 0 / 200 questions answered Question 131 / 200 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 43-year-old woman presents with epigastric pain radiating to back with elevated lipase. Relevant risk context includes poor diabetes control. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Decompensated heart failure B. Acute upper GI bleeding C. Diabetic ketoacidosis D. Acute biliary pancreatitis E. Acute kidney injury Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of epigastric pain radiating to back with elevated lipase with risk factors such as poor diabetes control is most consistent with Diabetic ketoacidosis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Internal Medicine. Reference: ACP and Society of Hospital Medicine guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 132 / 200 Not answered During ward handover: a 78-year-old woman has polyuria with high anion gap acidosis with risk profile of NSAID exposure. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Structured discharge and follow-up planning B. Guideline-directed chronic disease optimization C. Early specialist escalation for organ dysfunction D. Evidence-based inpatient antimicrobial strategy when indicated E. VTE prophylaxis and supportive inpatient care Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Guideline-directed chronic disease optimization is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Internal Medicine. Reference: ACP and Society of Hospital Medicine guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 133 / 200 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 80-year-old woman has orthopnea with bibasal crackles with risk profile of NSAID exposure. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Structured discharge and follow-up planning B. VTE prophylaxis and supportive inpatient care C. Condition-specific resuscitation protocol D. Early specialist escalation for organ dysfunction E. Guideline-directed chronic disease optimization Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: VTE prophylaxis and supportive inpatient care is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Internal Medicine. Reference: AHA/ACC and ESC disease guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 134 / 200 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 69-year-old woman has melena with hemodynamic instability with risk profile of ischemic heart disease. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Structured discharge and follow-up planning B. Guideline-directed chronic disease optimization C. Early specialist escalation for organ dysfunction D. Evidence-based inpatient antimicrobial strategy when indicated E. VTE prophylaxis and supportive inpatient care Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Guideline-directed chronic disease optimization is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Internal Medicine. Reference: ACP and Society of Hospital Medicine guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 135 / 200 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 43-year-old man has fever with hypoxemia and focal infiltrate with risk profile of chronic multimorbidity. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Condition-specific resuscitation protocol B. Guideline-directed chronic disease optimization C. VTE prophylaxis and supportive inpatient care D. Evidence-based inpatient antimicrobial strategy when indicated E. Structured discharge and follow-up planning Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: VTE prophylaxis and supportive inpatient care is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Internal Medicine. Reference: IDSA and ATS infectious disease guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 27 of 40 Next → »