Internal Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 00:44 Page 8 of 40 Attempt #1424 Overall: 0 / 200 questions answered Question 36 / 200 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 35-year-old woman presents with polyuria with high anion gap acidosis. Relevant risk context includes NSAID exposure. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Diabetic ketoacidosis B. Decompensated heart failure C. Complicated community-acquired pneumonia D. Acute kidney injury E. Acute biliary pancreatitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of polyuria with high anion gap acidosis with risk factors such as NSAID exposure is most consistent with Diabetic ketoacidosis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Internal Medicine. Reference: IDSA and ATS infectious disease guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 37 / 200 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 31-year-old man presents with fever with hypoxemia and focal infiltrate. Relevant risk context includes gallstone disease. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute upper GI bleeding B. Diabetic ketoacidosis C. Complicated community-acquired pneumonia D. Decompensated heart failure E. Acute kidney injury Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of fever with hypoxemia and focal infiltrate with risk factors such as gallstone disease is most consistent with Diabetic ketoacidosis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Internal Medicine. Reference: ACP and Society of Hospital Medicine guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 38 / 200 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 46-year-old man presents with orthopnea with bibasal crackles. Relevant risk context includes advanced age. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute biliary pancreatitis B. Complicated community-acquired pneumonia C. Decompensated heart failure D. Acute kidney injury E. Diabetic ketoacidosis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of orthopnea with bibasal crackles with risk factors such as advanced age is most consistent with Decompensated heart failure. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Internal Medicine. Reference: IDSA and ATS infectious disease guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 39 / 200 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 48-year-old woman presents with polyuria with high anion gap acidosis. Relevant risk context includes advanced age. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Decompensated heart failure B. Acute upper GI bleeding C. Complicated community-acquired pneumonia D. Acute biliary pancreatitis E. Diabetic ketoacidosis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of polyuria with high anion gap acidosis with risk factors such as advanced age is most consistent with Complicated community-acquired pneumonia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Internal Medicine. Reference: IDSA and ATS infectious disease guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 40 / 200 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 57-year-old woman is evaluated for orthopnea with bibasal crackles in the context of poor diabetes control. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Comprehensive metabolic panel B. ABG with lactate C. ECG with cardiac biomarkers when indicated D. CBC and inflammatory markers E. Targeted imaging for source diagnosis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Targeted imaging for source diagnosis is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Internal Medicine. Reference: ACP and Society of Hospital Medicine guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 8 of 40 Next → »