Neurology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 09:02 Page 17 of 57 Attempt #2428 Overall: 0 / 284 questions answered Question 81 / 284 Not answered During ward handover: a 64-year-old man has thunderclap headache with risk profile of vascular risk factors. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Evidence-based migraine prophylaxis B. Early neurorehabilitation planning C. Disease-modifying therapy for relapsing MS D. Appropriate antiseizure medication E. Time-sensitive stroke reperfusion pathway Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Evidence-based migraine prophylaxis is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Neurology. Reference: ILAE Epilepsy Guidance; Neurology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 82 / 284 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 52-year-old woman is evaluated for optic neuritis with sensory deficits in the context of smoking. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. MRI brain with diffusion B. CT angiography head and neck C. EEG D. Non-contrast CT brain E. Autoantibody panel for neuromuscular disease Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Non-contrast CT brain is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Neurology. Reference: ILAE Epilepsy Guidance; Neurology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 83 / 284 Not answered A 8-year-old child with newly diagnosed absence seizures is started on medication. Which drug is most appropriate? A. Phenytoin B. Ethosuximide C. Carbamazepine D. Valproic acid E. Lamotrigine Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Ethosuximide is the first-line drug for typical absence seizures due to its high efficacy and favorable side effect profile. Reference: Neurology Society Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 84 / 284 Not answered During ward handover: a 48-year-old woman presents with sudden unilateral weakness and aphasia. Relevant risk context includes autoimmune background. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Migraine with aura B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage C. Multiple sclerosis D. Focal epilepsy E. Myasthenia gravis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of sudden unilateral weakness and aphasia with risk factors such as autoimmune background is most consistent with Focal epilepsy. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Neurology. Reference: ILAE Epilepsy Guidance; Neurology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 85 / 284 Not answered A 35-year-old with recurrent migraines 3-4 times per month. Most appropriate prophylactic therapy: A. No prophylaxis needed B. Beta-blockers such as propranolol C. Acetaminophen daily D. Ergotamines daily E. NSAIDs on demand Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Beta-blockers are effective first-line prophylactic agents for migraines occurring >4 times per month. Reference: American Headache Society Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 17 of 57 Next → »