Neurology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 11:51 Page 20 of 57 Attempt #2667 Overall: 0 / 284 questions answered Question 96 / 284 Not answered During morning rounds: a 60-year-old woman has thunderclap headache with risk profile of hypertension. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Evidence-based migraine prophylaxis B. Appropriate antiseizure medication C. Time-sensitive stroke reperfusion pathway D. Disease-modifying therapy for relapsing MS E. Early neurorehabilitation planning Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Evidence-based migraine prophylaxis is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Neurology. Reference: McDonald Criteria for Multiple Sclerosis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 97 / 284 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 49-year-old woman has thunderclap headache with risk profile of smoking. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Early neurorehabilitation planning B. Appropriate antiseizure medication C. Evidence-based migraine prophylaxis D. Disease-modifying therapy for relapsing MS E. Time-sensitive stroke reperfusion pathway Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Evidence-based migraine prophylaxis is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Neurology. Reference: AHA/ASA Stroke Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 98 / 284 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 76-year-old woman presents with recurrent pulsatile headache with photophobia. Relevant risk context includes family history of epilepsy. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Multiple sclerosis B. Acute ischemic stroke C. Focal epilepsy D. Myasthenia gravis E. Subarachnoid hemorrhage Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of recurrent pulsatile headache with photophobia with risk factors such as family history of epilepsy is most consistent with Acute ischemic stroke. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Neurology. Reference: AAN Practice Guidelines; Neurology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 99 / 284 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 45-year-old woman has fatigable ptosis with diplopia with risk profile of atrial fibrillation. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Early neurorehabilitation planning B. Time-sensitive stroke reperfusion pathway C. Evidence-based migraine prophylaxis D. Disease-modifying therapy for relapsing MS E. Appropriate antiseizure medication Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Early neurorehabilitation planning is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Neurology. Reference: ILAE Epilepsy Guidance; Neurology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 100 / 284 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 64-year-old woman presents with recurrent pulsatile headache with photophobia. Relevant risk context includes autoimmune background. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage B. Multiple sclerosis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Focal epilepsy E. Migraine with aura Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of recurrent pulsatile headache with photophobia with risk factors such as autoimmune background is most consistent with Myasthenia gravis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Neurology. Reference: McDonald Criteria for Multiple Sclerosis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 20 of 57 Next → »