Neurology Board Exam Started: Jul 14, 2026 00:47 Page 30 of 57 Attempt #3028 Overall: 0 / 284 questions answered Question 146 / 284 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 55-year-old man has sudden unilateral weakness and aphasia with risk profile of hypertension. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Early neurorehabilitation planning B. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor-based symptomatic treatment C. Appropriate antiseizure medication D. Time-sensitive stroke reperfusion pathway E. Disease-modifying therapy for relapsing MS Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Appropriate antiseizure medication is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Neurology. Reference: ILAE Epilepsy Guidance; Neurology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 147 / 284 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 58-year-old man has recurrent pulsatile headache with photophobia with risk profile of vascular risk factors. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Early neurorehabilitation planning B. Appropriate antiseizure medication C. Time-sensitive stroke reperfusion pathway D. Disease-modifying therapy for relapsing MS E. Evidence-based migraine prophylaxis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Appropriate antiseizure medication is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Neurology. Reference: ILAE Epilepsy Guidance; Neurology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 148 / 284 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 25-year-old woman is evaluated for recurrent pulsatile headache with photophobia in the context of vascular risk factors. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Non-contrast CT brain B. EEG C. CT angiography head and neck D. MRI brain with diffusion E. Lumbar puncture when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: CT angiography head and neck is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Neurology. Reference: ILAE Epilepsy Guidance; Neurology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 149 / 284 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 25-year-old man presents with sudden unilateral weakness and aphasia. Relevant risk context includes vascular risk factors. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage B. Migraine with aura C. Acute ischemic stroke D. Multiple sclerosis E. Focal epilepsy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of sudden unilateral weakness and aphasia with risk factors such as vascular risk factors is most consistent with Focal epilepsy. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Neurology. Reference: AAN Practice Guidelines; Neurology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 150 / 284 Not answered During morning rounds: a 66-year-old man is evaluated for optic neuritis with sensory deficits in the context of hypertension. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. CT angiography head and neck B. MRI brain with diffusion C. Autoantibody panel for neuromuscular disease D. Lumbar puncture when indicated E. EEG Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: CT angiography head and neck is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Neurology. Reference: McDonald Criteria for Multiple Sclerosis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 30 of 57 Next → »