Neurology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 23:23 Page 31 of 57 Attempt #3006 Overall: 0 / 284 questions answered Question 151 / 284 Not answered During ward handover: a 65-year-old man is evaluated for thunderclap headache in the context of smoking. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Autoantibody panel for neuromuscular disease B. MRI brain with diffusion C. Non-contrast CT brain D. Lumbar puncture when indicated E. CT angiography head and neck Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: CT angiography head and neck is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Neurology. Reference: AAN Practice Guidelines; Neurology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 152 / 284 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 77-year-old man presents with recurrent stereotyped focal events. Relevant risk context includes family history of epilepsy. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Multiple sclerosis B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage C. Focal epilepsy D. Myasthenia gravis E. Migraine with aura Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of recurrent stereotyped focal events with risk factors such as family history of epilepsy is most consistent with Subarachnoid hemorrhage. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Neurology. Reference: ILAE Epilepsy Guidance; Neurology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 153 / 284 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 51-year-old woman presents with fatigable ptosis with diplopia. Relevant risk context includes atrial fibrillation. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute ischemic stroke B. Migraine with aura C. Multiple sclerosis D. Myasthenia gravis E. Subarachnoid hemorrhage Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of fatigable ptosis with diplopia with risk factors such as atrial fibrillation is most consistent with Myasthenia gravis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Neurology. Reference: McDonald Criteria for Multiple Sclerosis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 154 / 284 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 38-year-old man has optic neuritis with sensory deficits with risk profile of hypertension. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Appropriate antiseizure medication B. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor-based symptomatic treatment C. Time-sensitive stroke reperfusion pathway D. Early neurorehabilitation planning E. Disease-modifying therapy for relapsing MS Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Early neurorehabilitation planning is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Neurology. Reference: AAN Practice Guidelines; Neurology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 155 / 284 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 60-year-old woman presents with fatigable ptosis with diplopia. Relevant risk context includes atrial fibrillation. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute ischemic stroke B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage C. Myasthenia gravis D. Focal epilepsy E. Multiple sclerosis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of fatigable ptosis with diplopia with risk factors such as atrial fibrillation is most consistent with Multiple sclerosis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Neurology. Reference: AHA/ASA Stroke Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 31 of 57 Next → »