Neurology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 21:10 Page 32 of 57 Attempt #2967 Overall: 0 / 284 questions answered Question 156 / 284 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 65-year-old man has optic neuritis with sensory deficits with risk profile of family history of epilepsy. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Appropriate antiseizure medication B. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor-based symptomatic treatment C. Evidence-based migraine prophylaxis D. Disease-modifying therapy for relapsing MS E. Early neurorehabilitation planning Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Evidence-based migraine prophylaxis is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Neurology. Reference: McDonald Criteria for Multiple Sclerosis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 157 / 284 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 38-year-old woman has recurrent stereotyped focal events with risk profile of vascular risk factors. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Evidence-based migraine prophylaxis B. Appropriate antiseizure medication C. Early neurorehabilitation planning D. Disease-modifying therapy for relapsing MS E. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor-based symptomatic treatment Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor-based symptomatic treatment is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Neurology. Reference: AHA/ASA Stroke Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 158 / 284 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 30-year-old woman presents with sudden unilateral weakness and aphasia. Relevant risk context includes hypertension. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage B. Myasthenia gravis C. Focal epilepsy D. Migraine with aura E. Acute ischemic stroke Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of sudden unilateral weakness and aphasia with risk factors such as hypertension is most consistent with Subarachnoid hemorrhage. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Neurology. Reference: McDonald Criteria for Multiple Sclerosis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 159 / 284 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 36-year-old man presents with fatigable ptosis with diplopia. Relevant risk context includes atrial fibrillation. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Focal epilepsy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage D. Migraine with aura E. Acute ischemic stroke Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of fatigable ptosis with diplopia with risk factors such as atrial fibrillation is most consistent with Acute ischemic stroke. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Neurology. Reference: AHA/ASA Stroke Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 160 / 284 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 56-year-old man is evaluated for optic neuritis with sensory deficits in the context of autoimmune background. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Non-contrast CT brain B. Lumbar puncture when indicated C. MRI brain with diffusion D. CT angiography head and neck E. EEG Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Lumbar puncture when indicated is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Neurology. Reference: AHA/ASA Stroke Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 32 of 57 Next → »