Neurology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 14:53 Page 35 of 57 Attempt #2838 Overall: 0 / 284 questions answered Question 171 / 284 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 67-year-old man presents with fatigable ptosis with diplopia. Relevant risk context includes atrial fibrillation. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Myasthenia gravis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Migraine with aura D. Focal epilepsy E. Subarachnoid hemorrhage Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of fatigable ptosis with diplopia with risk factors such as atrial fibrillation is most consistent with Focal epilepsy. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Neurology. Reference: AHA/ASA Stroke Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 172 / 284 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 25-year-old man is evaluated for optic neuritis with sensory deficits in the context of hypertension. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Lumbar puncture when indicated B. Non-contrast CT brain C. EEG D. MRI brain with diffusion E. Autoantibody panel for neuromuscular disease Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Autoantibody panel for neuromuscular disease is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Neurology. Reference: AAN Practice Guidelines; Neurology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 173 / 284 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 66-year-old man is evaluated for thunderclap headache in the context of smoking. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Lumbar puncture when indicated B. EEG C. Autoantibody panel for neuromuscular disease D. MRI brain with diffusion E. CT angiography head and neck Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: CT angiography head and neck is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Neurology. Reference: McDonald Criteria for Multiple Sclerosis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 174 / 284 Not answered During ward handover: a 41-year-old man has sudden unilateral weakness and aphasia with risk profile of family history of epilepsy. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor-based symptomatic treatment B. Time-sensitive stroke reperfusion pathway C. Disease-modifying therapy for relapsing MS D. Evidence-based migraine prophylaxis E. Early neurorehabilitation planning Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Early neurorehabilitation planning is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Neurology. Reference: AHA/ASA Stroke Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 175 / 284 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 41-year-old man has recurrent stereotyped focal events with risk profile of smoking. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Time-sensitive stroke reperfusion pathway B. Evidence-based migraine prophylaxis C. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor-based symptomatic treatment D. Appropriate antiseizure medication E. Early neurorehabilitation planning Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Early neurorehabilitation planning is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Neurology. Reference: AAN Practice Guidelines; Neurology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 35 of 57 Next → »