Neurology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 14:02 Page 36 of 57 Attempt #2797 Overall: 0 / 284 questions answered Question 176 / 284 Not answered During morning rounds: a 26-year-old woman is evaluated for fatigable ptosis with diplopia in the context of family history of epilepsy. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Lumbar puncture when indicated B. Non-contrast CT brain C. CT angiography head and neck D. Autoantibody panel for neuromuscular disease E. MRI brain with diffusion Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Non-contrast CT brain is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Neurology. Reference: McDonald Criteria for Multiple Sclerosis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 177 / 284 Not answered During ward handover: a 54-year-old man presents with optic neuritis with sensory deficits. Relevant risk context includes family history of epilepsy. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Migraine with aura B. Acute ischemic stroke C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage D. Multiple sclerosis E. Focal epilepsy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of optic neuritis with sensory deficits with risk factors such as family history of epilepsy is most consistent with Focal epilepsy. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Neurology. Reference: AHA/ASA Stroke Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 178 / 284 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 41-year-old man has recurrent stereotyped focal events with risk profile of smoking. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Time-sensitive stroke reperfusion pathway B. Evidence-based migraine prophylaxis C. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor-based symptomatic treatment D. Disease-modifying therapy for relapsing MS E. Early neurorehabilitation planning Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Evidence-based migraine prophylaxis is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Neurology. Reference: ILAE Epilepsy Guidance; Neurology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 179 / 284 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 47-year-old woman has thunderclap headache with risk profile of hypertension. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Disease-modifying therapy for relapsing MS B. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor-based symptomatic treatment C. Early neurorehabilitation planning D. Time-sensitive stroke reperfusion pathway E. Appropriate antiseizure medication Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Early neurorehabilitation planning is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Neurology. Reference: AHA/ASA Stroke Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 180 / 284 Not answered During ward handover: a 35-year-old woman presents with recurrent pulsatile headache with photophobia. Relevant risk context includes vascular risk factors. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute ischemic stroke B. Migraine with aura C. Myasthenia gravis D. Focal epilepsy E. Subarachnoid hemorrhage Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of recurrent pulsatile headache with photophobia with risk factors such as vascular risk factors is most consistent with Focal epilepsy. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Neurology. Reference: McDonald Criteria for Multiple Sclerosis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 36 of 57 Next → »