Neurology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 13:12 Page 37 of 57 Attempt #2753 Overall: 0 / 284 questions answered Question 181 / 284 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 40-year-old man is evaluated for recurrent pulsatile headache with photophobia in the context of atrial fibrillation. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. EEG B. MRI brain with diffusion C. Lumbar puncture when indicated D. CT angiography head and neck E. Non-contrast CT brain Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: MRI brain with diffusion is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Neurology. Reference: AAN Practice Guidelines; Neurology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 182 / 284 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 59-year-old woman is evaluated for recurrent stereotyped focal events in the context of autoimmune background. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Non-contrast CT brain B. EEG C. MRI brain with diffusion D. Autoantibody panel for neuromuscular disease E. Lumbar puncture when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: MRI brain with diffusion is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Neurology. Reference: AHA/ASA Stroke Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 183 / 284 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 63-year-old woman has sudden unilateral weakness and aphasia with risk profile of vascular risk factors. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Time-sensitive stroke reperfusion pathway B. Early neurorehabilitation planning C. Disease-modifying therapy for relapsing MS D. Appropriate antiseizure medication E. Evidence-based migraine prophylaxis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Appropriate antiseizure medication is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Neurology. Reference: AHA/ASA Stroke Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 184 / 284 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 60-year-old man has optic neuritis with sensory deficits with risk profile of family history of epilepsy. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Evidence-based migraine prophylaxis B. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor-based symptomatic treatment C. Appropriate antiseizure medication D. Early neurorehabilitation planning E. Time-sensitive stroke reperfusion pathway Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Appropriate antiseizure medication is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Neurology. Reference: AHA/ASA Stroke Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 185 / 284 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 39-year-old woman presents with recurrent pulsatile headache with photophobia. Relevant risk context includes autoimmune background. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute ischemic stroke B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage C. Migraine with aura D. Focal epilepsy E. Myasthenia gravis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of recurrent pulsatile headache with photophobia with risk factors such as autoimmune background is most consistent with Myasthenia gravis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Neurology. Reference: AHA/ASA Stroke Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 37 of 57 Next → »