Neurology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 12:17 Page 38 of 57 Attempt #2706 Overall: 0 / 284 questions answered Question 186 / 284 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 70-year-old woman is evaluated for sudden unilateral weakness and aphasia in the context of vascular risk factors. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Autoantibody panel for neuromuscular disease B. Lumbar puncture when indicated C. Non-contrast CT brain D. EEG E. CT angiography head and neck Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: CT angiography head and neck is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Neurology. Reference: AHA/ASA Stroke Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 187 / 284 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 79-year-old man is evaluated for fatigable ptosis with diplopia in the context of smoking. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. EEG B. MRI brain with diffusion C. Lumbar puncture when indicated D. Autoantibody panel for neuromuscular disease E. CT angiography head and neck Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: CT angiography head and neck is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Neurology. Reference: AHA/ASA Stroke Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 188 / 284 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 45-year-old man has thunderclap headache with risk profile of family history of epilepsy. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Evidence-based migraine prophylaxis B. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor-based symptomatic treatment C. Disease-modifying therapy for relapsing MS D. Appropriate antiseizure medication E. Time-sensitive stroke reperfusion pathway Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Appropriate antiseizure medication is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Neurology. Reference: AHA/ASA Stroke Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 189 / 284 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 74-year-old man has optic neuritis with sensory deficits with risk profile of hypertension. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Disease-modifying therapy for relapsing MS B. Evidence-based migraine prophylaxis C. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor-based symptomatic treatment D. Appropriate antiseizure medication E. Early neurorehabilitation planning Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Early neurorehabilitation planning is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Neurology. Reference: AHA/ASA Stroke Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 190 / 284 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 25-year-old woman presents with sudden unilateral weakness and aphasia. Relevant risk context includes atrial fibrillation. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Myasthenia gravis B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage C. Acute ischemic stroke D. Migraine with aura E. Multiple sclerosis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of sudden unilateral weakness and aphasia with risk factors such as atrial fibrillation is most consistent with Multiple sclerosis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Neurology. Reference: AAN Practice Guidelines; Neurology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 38 of 57 Next → »