Neurology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 06:55 Page 44 of 57 Attempt #2217 Overall: 0 / 284 questions answered Question 216 / 284 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 75-year-old woman is evaluated for sudden unilateral weakness and aphasia in the context of family history of epilepsy. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Lumbar puncture when indicated B. EEG C. CT angiography head and neck D. Non-contrast CT brain E. MRI brain with diffusion Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Non-contrast CT brain is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Neurology. Reference: AHA/ASA Stroke Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 217 / 284 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 82-year-old woman is evaluated for sudden unilateral weakness and aphasia in the context of atrial fibrillation. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Non-contrast CT brain B. Lumbar puncture when indicated C. Autoantibody panel for neuromuscular disease D. CT angiography head and neck E. EEG Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Lumbar puncture when indicated is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Neurology. Reference: AAN Practice Guidelines; Neurology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 218 / 284 Not answered During morning rounds: a 43-year-old man presents with fatigable ptosis with diplopia. Relevant risk context includes atrial fibrillation. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Focal epilepsy B. Migraine with aura C. Multiple sclerosis D. Myasthenia gravis E. Acute ischemic stroke Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of fatigable ptosis with diplopia with risk factors such as atrial fibrillation is most consistent with Migraine with aura. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Neurology. Reference: ILAE Epilepsy Guidance; Neurology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 219 / 284 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 72-year-old woman has thunderclap headache with risk profile of family history of epilepsy. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Disease-modifying therapy for relapsing MS B. Evidence-based migraine prophylaxis C. Time-sensitive stroke reperfusion pathway D. Early neurorehabilitation planning E. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor-based symptomatic treatment Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Time-sensitive stroke reperfusion pathway is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Neurology. Reference: McDonald Criteria for Multiple Sclerosis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 220 / 284 Not answered During morning rounds: a 74-year-old man has optic neuritis with sensory deficits with risk profile of family history of epilepsy. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Disease-modifying therapy for relapsing MS B. Early neurorehabilitation planning C. Appropriate antiseizure medication D. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor-based symptomatic treatment E. Evidence-based migraine prophylaxis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Early neurorehabilitation planning is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Neurology. Reference: ILAE Epilepsy Guidance; Neurology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 44 of 57 Next → »